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Overunity Machines Forum



PhysicsProf Steven E. Jones circuit shows 8x overunity ?

Started by JouleSeeker, May 19, 2011, 11:21:55 PM

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JouleSeeker

MarkE:
QuoteWith soft iron this is easy to do:  Magnetize with the loop closed, IE no gap.  The remnant magnetization will be quite good and remain so until a reluctance gap is opened.  Once the gap is opened the remnant magnetization collapses.

Please explain this: "Once the gap is opened the remnant magnetization collapses."
Basically, this is what we observe -- but why does the "remnant magnetization collapse"?   Truly, COLLAPSES - gone entirely (or almost entirely).

This does not happen when I remove the keeper from a horseshoe magnet, for example.  So why does demagnetization occur when the iron has been magnetized with an electromagnet (coil)?

(I don't think you've given me a straight answer yet.  I'm not sure anyone KNOWS the answer.)

JouleSeeker


MarkE:
Quote
With soft iron this is easy to do:  Magnetize with the loop closed, IE no gap.  The remnant magnetization will be quite good and remain so until a reluctance gap is opened.  Once the gap is opened the remnant magnetization collapses.

Please explain this: "Once the gap is opened the remnant magnetization collapses."
Basically, this is what we observe -- but why does the "remnant magnetization collapse"?   Truly, COLLAPSES - gone entirely (or almost entirely).

This does not happen when I remove the keeper from a horseshoe magnet, for example.  So why does demagnetization occur when the iron (or ferrite, in my experiments/video)  has been magnetized with an electromagnet (coil)?

(I don't think you've given me a straight answer yet.  I'm not sure anyone KNOWS the answer.)

MarkE

Quote from: JouleSeeker on July 12, 2014, 10:31:39 AM
MarkE:
Please explain this: "Once the gap is opened the remnant magnetization collapses."
Basically, this is what we observe -- but why does the "remnant magnetization collapse"?   Truly, COLLAPSES - gone entirely (or almost entirely).

This does not happen when I remove the keeper from a horseshoe magnet, for example.  So why does demagnetization occur when the iron (or ferrite, in my experiments/video)  has been magnetized with an electromagnet (coil)?

(I don't think you've given me a straight answer yet.  I'm not sure anyone KNOWS the answer.)
In two words:  coercive force.  You are observing the difference between hard and soft magnetic materials.

synchro1

Core permeability! The frequency that the ferrite can completely charge and discharge determines it's "Permeability Rating". A thousand like lasersaber's Joule Ringer type, or up to ten thousand for Metglass.

Farmhand

It's no big secret, the remnant magnetism is a magnetic current created by an electric current (not a permanent magnet) so
when the keeper is removed the remnant magnetism collapses just like the magnetism in a coil collapses when the electric current
is stopped. My guess is that the energy that is contained within the magnetic current is released through the coils when the
keeper is removed.

What do you think should happen ? Should the magnetic current just disappear. Or do you think the energy should be released
some other way ?

....

General statements below, not directed at anyone in particular.

I'm going to go ahead and say that the energy required for the keeper to remain locked is so small that a reduction in the energy
within the magnetism would not be noticed in a short period of time. There is no output from a PMH whatsoever
(except the discharge from the coil when the keeper is removed by force) so the only outlet for the energy is through losses in the
connections between the keeper and the main body of the PMH. If one was to make a PMH with a bad connection between the
keeper and the main body of the PMH then the keeper might fall off on it's own in a relatively short time.

Some say the PMH is free energy or perpetual motion and people can call it whatever they want but a PMH has no output until the
keeper is removed by force. Then only part of the original energy can be recovered.

..