Ultimate proof of Magnetic Vortex, free book and videos

[MileHigh]

magnetism is RADIATION

What does that mean?  What is the form of the radiation?  Does it propagate like regular EM radiation?

[picowatt]

Well, normally I would refer to the established literature on industrial processes for magnetizing bulk material, Gauss's law for magnetism, Maxwell's equations especially the Faraday-Maxwell equation, QED and so on. But you have seen by now that it is impossible to argue reasonably with someone who not only knows everything already, but already knows that everything _you_ know is wrong.
We also know that the Greatest Buddhist Scientist does not deign to perform True Experiments that actually test formally stated hypotheses by inverting them and attempting to disprove the resultant null. He prefers confirmatory demonstrations; they are much less challenging and are easier to stuff into one's preferred world view.
So here is what I think: No amount of experimental evidence will be accepted by Kenny-boy if it contradicts or fails to support his wild Theory of Everything, and he will not fail to continue to insult you in the most disrespectful manner possible, the more so the more evidence you present.

TK,

I will try to contact some engineers this week that should be able to answer the rate question.  I know there is a minimum time the that field must be applied to allow the the moments to to align, but this is typically a very short period.

As for the rest of what he proposes, much of it seems to be just semantics.  There is no "electron", but there is a "terminon" or equivalent, that is, a region of space possessing properties that do indeed act like an electron by any other name, which repels itself, is attracted to positive charges, can be controlled as we do and follows all the math and rules we have thus far been able to produce for it.

Apparently, nothing, so far, that TA proposes, makes any unique predictions or falsifies any existing rules or math in support of his teachings over conventional theory.

Other than prohibiting the use of certain words, definitions, or labels in exchange for new ones, what is the point?

PW

[MileHigh]

Yes I think with the help of a Babel fish once can conclude that Kenny is just talking about ordinary magnetic phenomena.

[TheoriaApophasis]

Conventional thinking would say that the mechanism involved in producing both a weak or a strong magnet are the same.  It makes little sense that there would need to be two different mechanisms involved to accomplish the same task (magnetization) dependent upon whether a weak or strong magnet is desired. 

By CONVENTIONAL, you mean ignorance.   You have 2 conjugate fields, dielectricity and magnetism in EVERY ATOM that exists.  .....

I can use a strong "magnet" (dielectric object) to create dielectric coherency IN soft iron WITHOUT increasing the capacitance and create a "weak magnet" out of the soft iron.


NOT "2 diff mechanism",     2 diff methods of doing the same thing, one by inductive capacitance increase, the other by coherent dielectric alignment in what IS ALREADY PRESENT BUT INCOHERENT.

, the alignment of magnetic moments within the pre-magnet to an externally applied magnetic field.

Now answer your OWN question,  how does magnetism interact with dielectricity???

Regarding the idea that electrical current is induced into the magnet in your "electrical" induction method for producing powerful magnets, I remain unsure as to how you envision this process.  First, it should be obvious that large capacitors are not used to discharge large currents and voltages DIRECTLY THRU the poles of a pre-magnet.  One would also expect the poles of a magnetizer to insulate or provide a gap in at least one of its pole pieces to prevent the formation of a single turn loop, as would happen when an electrically conductive pre-magnet is placed across the magnetizer's pole pieces.  One can only imagine the poles of the pre-magnet being welded to the poles of the magnetizer, or the plating being blasted from a neo if this were allowed to happen.

Electricity TERMINATES AS (not into) magnetism,  where did you think the dielectric component of the electrical discharge from the coils WENT?  Phi X Psi = Q (electrification).

I keep forgetting that you have NO CLUE what wireless INDUCTION (OF POWER) is!!

"poles of the premanget"   what the hell, a "pre-magnet" has no POLES, it hasnt been polarized YET.

As well, consider an electrically non-conductive resin bonded neo or ceramic, how indeed are large currents to pass thru these non-conductive pre-magnets?

You're confusing conduction with (dielectric) capacitance, and likewise appear to be clueless about wireless charge induction!!!!!    To answer your question, YOU TELL ME how I can CHARGE a  "non-conductive" piece of GLASS with enough DIELECTRIC (electrostatic) charge to STOP A PERSONS heart?

suggest you read this and wise up:
http://journal.borderlands.com/1987/the-fallacy-of-conductors/

You speak of the wireless transfer of electricity and electrical induction as if this is actually the mechanism involved (as opposed to the passing of current directly thru the pre-magnet as originally stated).  Again, the issue of electrically non-conductive magnets arises, as where are these induced currents supposed to be flowing?  Possibly you mean to say that this electrical current is induced directly into the atomic structure of the pre-magnet's atoms, with no macroscopic current flows required within or thru the bulk of the pre-magnet's material.

Wireless power transfer is a WELL KNOWN and WELL PATENTED technology, sorry your mind is in the STONE AGE.

Ever heard of this new invention called a solenoid?  ROFL !!!!

"""as opposed to the passing of current directly thru the pre-magnet""

So, in your mental farht, you think current induction with wires, and current induction by field-induction are 2 diff things?   INTERESTING.

If the involved mechanism with regard to magnetizing a pre-magnet were indeed due to electrical induction, then as per Faraday, the degree with which we can magnetize the pre-magnet should also be a function of the RATE of change of the magnetizer's field.

NO, and its obvious you never read FARADAY NOR MAXWELL, I will get the quote here in a bit.

Nothing is "magnetized",  DUMMY, magnetism is radiation, what is manipulated is the dielectric.

[picowatt]

TA,

So you do agree then, that the mechanism you propose, must obey Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction?
(just as those wireless power transfer systems do)

That is, your "electrical induction" method must be RATE dependent.

PW