Ultimate proof of Magnetic Vortex, free book and videos

[TheoriaApophasis]

Hello,
1/Phi^-3 = 4.23606............

what this does means?

WE multiply PHI 3 times! SO

EACH FIBONACCI NUMBER REPRESENT ONE-QUARTER OF A CYCLE... Any relation to the (star)pent i guess?

sorry for my ignorence i am just trying to understand  The equation for the loss of inertia is 1/Phi^-3

Best Regards
luc2010

it would take forever to explain, sorry.


Far far too long

[Qwert]

1/Phi^-3 can be expressed  another way: 1/Phi^-3 (one_divided_by_[Phi_magnified_by_-3])

[MarkE]

1/Phi^-3 can be expressed in another way: 1/Phi^-3 (one divided by [Phi magnified -3 ])

1/x = x^-1 
1/xⁿ = x^-n
phi^-3 = 1/phi³ 
1/phi^-3 = phi³

[linoavac]

http://blog.hasslberger.com/2011/12/magnetic_vortex_-_experimental.html
it is old and PRATICAL

[luc2010]

it would take forever to explain, sorry.


Far far too long

In the book  ( Uncovering the the missing secrets of magnetisms 3 edition september 25/ 2014    236 pages)
I could not find a single word about fibonacci??? Strange,  i just hope that i am wrong about this..

"Mother nature has never taken a course in math, algebra and she absolutly rejects the nonsense espoused by quantum........." page 16

its seems that mother nature have not only just take a course in math, but equiped with supper computer (or with little help of angels ) that can handel all these calculations!?

please, can Anyone explaine this?

Regards
luc2010