Marko Rodin Coil -- 007 Device

[MileHigh]

Brad:

That was a whack-job posting and I am going to respond.

The mistake you keep making,is looking only at the inductor,and not the ideal voltage source.
The fact that current can continue to flow through the ideal voltage source,when the voltage across the ideal sources terminals is 0,means there is no impedance to that current flow,and there for no resistance through the current path of the ideal voltage source. Regardless as to how the inductor reacts to a voltage placed across it,in no way determines or changes the current path through the ideal voltage source--which remains as a non resistive current path--these are things you should know.

I am not making any mistake, nor am I ignorant about what you are talking about.  You are just propagandizing and talking nonsense out of pure mean spiritedness.  You are making a whack-job straw man argument and trying to put words into my mouth.  It's like you are off your rocker.

But i still say it is incorrect,and it is now your job to prove me wrong--which you cant,as you do not have an ideal voltage source(nor dose one exist)that describes the one used in the answer given to your question.

After all this time you are still playing the "problem student" that has difficulty in understanding things.  I do not literally have to have an ideal voltage source, you are talking like a child that still believes in the Tooth Fairy.  You are just going to have to cope with the concept of an ideal voltage source which is a universal concept, tough luck for you.  I told you repeatedly that a power audio amplifier could give you what is tantamount to an ideal voltage source within certain limits, and lo and behold now Picowatt is telling you exactly the same thing.  I have no idea what I am supposed to "prove wrong."

A clear indication you are on a fools quest with your question,claiming to be able to validate an answer based around a non existent circuit.

And there is no such thing as Santa Claus but he still exists.

Based on the fact that your question is based around non existent voltage sources,then you are unable to qualify your answer--this is fact.

Who got you that shiny new set of spark plugs and the four liters of oil last Christmas, the Great Pumpkin?

Absolute rubbish,as there experimenting has nothing what so ever to do with ideal voltage sources and ideal coils of that size.

It has everything to do with Russ' testing of a Rodin coil, you have been hanging around with the Garbage Pail Kids too much and eating too many Queasy Bake cookies and you are on a bad trip.

I hope you do not contaminate Russ's forum ,like you have contaminated this one.

You know what they said at Woodstock, "Watch out for the brown acid in the Queasy Bake cookies."

MileHigh

[MileHigh]

Loner:

Yes, 2.39 amps at three seconds sounds much better.

Now, HOW would you do the above WITHOUT resistance?
How would you calc the time constant?
I would REALLY appreciate an answer, if there is one that can be shown using math....

That is indeed the big question.  You note that all that you are doing to arrive at 2.39 amps is punching some numbers into a formula.  The challenge is to make the leap from just punching numbers into a formula to understanding how the inductor actually works.

Here is a hint:  If the time constant is 500 seconds, and you calculated the current value at three seconds, perhaps you might suspect that the difference between the coil with zero resistance and the coil with 0.01 ohms resistance would be very small at three seconds?  In other words, you might suspect that the current would be quite similar.

Just think about how a coil really works.  And no, there is no sim program that I was using.

Just an equation.  Without a source resistance or Inductive resistance or at least a wire resistance I can't see it without DEEP math.

Do you know what an integral is?   That's another hint.  You could even solve it using a derivative.  That's another hint.

Please think about it and do some surfing.  If you are stumped in a few days I will gladly answer.

MileHigh

[3Kelvin]

Loner, you was faster.

I agree, the key to the MH Question is the Tau.

Tau = L/R => 5 Tau is something like 99,5% Current of steady State DC.
If R going to 0, then Tau will go(ing) to infinity.
If Tau is infinity so no current will move to the coil.

Back EMF
VL(t)= -L di/dt

My Problem is, the infinitive sharp Edge from the input Signal.
From 0 to 4 Volt in 0 Time. For that assumption we will also get infinity.
So the Back EMF will be also infinity.

Tau seems to be the best approach for the problem.

So far my assumptions in a set of boundaries.

Bo be continued
Please fell free to correct my if i wrong with the set of assumptions and boundaries.

My motivation is to learn, not to fight with people.

Love and Peace
3K

PS. TK, i like your YT Channel and i understand the meaning of "Texas has Resonance"

[MileHigh]

If R going to 0, then Tau will go(ing) to infinity.
If Tau is infinity so no current will move to the coil.

Yes, I have heard that many times before.

But now think about this:

If I have a coil with a low resistance and I put voltage across the coil then current flows through it.

So why should current stop flowing through the coil if the resistance changes from a low resistance to a zero resistance?

We all know that if you reduce the resistance in a circuit, it lets the current flow more easily.

[MileHigh]

Back EMF
VL(t)= -L di/dt

My Problem is, the infinitive sharp Edge from the input Signal.
From 0 to 4 Volt in 0 Time. For that assumption we will also get infinity.
So the Back EMF will be also infinity.

Are you sure about that?

Back-EMF is a term we use to represent the output voltage from a coil.

In my question, who is in control of the voltage across the coil?  Is it the ideal voltage source, or is it the coil?