SMOT! - (previously about the OC MPMM)

[Omnibus]

@hoptoad,

Don't clutter the thread with nonsense.

[Omnibus]

Low-Q,

See again what my claim is now that you understand that:

"Of course C to A is greater than B to A."

Think about how much A to B (the energy imparted to the ball) is. Isn't it equal to B to A and not equal to C to A?.

[hoptoad]

@hoptoad,

Don't clutter the thread with nonsense.

Practice what you preach!

[Low-Q]

Low-Q,

See again what my claim is now that you understand that:

"Of course C to A is greater than B to A."

Think about how much A to B (the energy imparted to the ball) is. Isn't it equal to B to A and not equal to C to A?.

That's correct, but only without the magnets. Point A is within a finite distance to the magnets. The magnetic force is therefor, in respect to A, greater than the magnetic force in point B. Therefor you can use the same energy to lift the ball from A to C as from A to B if the magnets is present. So you still havn't violated the CoE. In a closed loop, point A is virtually infinetly far away, thus point B and C will have virtually the same magnetic force as they in a closed loop is virtually the same point.

@All of you: We all have predilection for different things in life, and don't see the limits due to pure blindness. "Love makes blind", or what you say in english.

Br.

Vidar

[Omnibus]

@Low-Q,

Of course. Because with the magnets, as seen, CoE is violated. With the magnets A to B isn't equal to C to A, correct?