SMOT! - (previously about the OC MPMM)

[Omnibus]

@tinu,

This incorrect. At B the ball has energy exactly (mgh1 + Mb) and nothing of the sorts you claim. Also, in going from A to B the ball loses magnetic potential energy, therefore, I'm not imparting magnetic potential energy into it. therefore, again, who has supplied the magnetic potential energy Mb by bringing the ball from C to B which the ball loses in going (free falling, as you say) from B to C.

[Omnibus]

@oak,

If you don't have anything to contribute, as you obviously don't, restrain from posting.

[Omnibus]

To understand that CoE can be violated, as is already definitively proven already, is crucial in this area of research. See what's going on with the endeavor we're discussing now. Someone in two youtube videos is accusing @alsetalonkin of outright fraud not questioning for one second that if there were no fraud and what we see in the video really happened without external energy input this would be a violation of CoE and @alsetalonkin seems to like what that guy says. This begs the question, if this is fraud, as @alsetalonkin doesn't seem to object, why are we all bothering to pursue replication of this? On the other hand, if it isn't fraud and @alsetalonkin is really observing what he's presenting for us to see in the video why is he so adamantly pressing this cannot be violation of CoE especially provided the fact that violation of CoE has already been confirmed beyond any doubt? Why doesn't he just stick with the engineering part and leave science where he isn't too versed to begin with?  Weird, isn't it?

[Low-Q]

@Low-Q,

So far you have just stated that this device is violating CoE because C to A is different from B to A. And not taken one single moment to explain why.

Why? Because B and C are not equipotential, as you insist they are in the presence of the magnet. Why not? Well, because the experiment shows that--if they were equipotential the ball wouldn't have moved from B to C.

Curiously, and that's the violation of CoE, when the ball is at B it prefers to lose energy in going towards C (in addition to the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)| which it will lose anyway when it's back at A) rather than lose it (lose just the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)|) by going back to A and obeying CoE.

And, by the way, learn some elementary physics. It isn't true that "The magnetic force at point C is therefor, in respect to A, greater than the magnetic force in point B." It's just the opposite, the magnetic force at B is greater than at A.

I forgot a few words there. My mistake. Now I assume you agree with the sentence.

br.

Vidar

[Omnibus]

@Low-Q,

If you now understand that at A the force of the magnetic field is weaker than at B, I agree.