SMOT! - (previously about the OC MPMM)

[Omnibus]

@tinu,

I do have an answer and you might have understood it should you've known that in going from A to B, respectively, from B to C the ball loses magnetic potential energy. You didn't know that yesterday and therefore, I advised you to go back and refresh your knowledge of physics. You obviously don't know it today and you probably won't ever know it because of certain gaps you have in understanding some physical phenomena. I'm not hear to educate you but to have a discussion with people who at least have some basic understanding of the things considered. You're not this kind of person and I'm only wasting my time speaking to you. Therefore, as I already said, the exchange with you is now finished.

[tinu]

So, you are not done yet?

Ok then, dear Omnibus. Find out that you impudently persist in your flaw:

In going from A to B, the ball GAINS magnetic potential energy.
Think again:
mgh1+Mb-Ma>0 | lim(h1->0)
=> Mb>Ma
QED

See you around,
Tinu

[Omnibus]

This is real impudence. You were told that the conversation with you is finished, especially becuase you don't understand that Mb is not  greater than Ma but you impudently persist with your nonsense.

[acp]

@Low-Q,

The question is how the ball gets pulled from C to B so that it then can lose the magnetic potential energy in going from B to C. That's the persistent question you haven't answered. Don't get off track.

You told me some months ago that the ball travels on the closed loop A-B-C-D. If this is true, then it is easy to see that the ball never gets pulled from C-B

[Omnibus]

@acp,

Correct. Before the experiment starts the ball never gets pulled from C to B. And, nevertheless it loses energy along B-C in the course of the experiment, that is, energy that hasn't been imparted to it at the start of the experiment is being lost during the experiment.Think about it, when you impart to the ball energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb))| to raise it from A to B then, if CoE is to be obeyed the ball must lose that exact amount, that is |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb))|, when it goes back to A and complete a closed loop. Not so, however, in our case of the ball completing a closed loop. The ball being at B (raised from A) and having energy (mgh1 + Mb) at B in our case doesn't lose energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)| when it goes back at A and closes the A-B-C-A loop. The ball in our case loses, as was said, energy Mb = (mgh2 + [KE + ...] ) as well as energy mgh1. This energy (that is the energy (mgh1 + Mb) which the ball loses in going from B back to A, closing the loop) is more than the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)| that was imparted to it to raise it from A to B and that's a clear violation of CoE.

The above was explained many, many times and I think we should let this thread sink now because at this moment, having already firm conviction that CoE can be violated, we have to focus our efforts to apply this already confirmed violation of CoE in a practical device producing energy from nothing continuously, such as, for instance, the device presented by @alsetalonkin. So let us all move to the topic discussing the replication of that device.