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Overunity Machines Forum



Joule Thief 101

Started by resonanceman, November 22, 2009, 10:18:06 PM

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0 Members and 25 Guests are viewing this topic.

tinman

Quote from: ramset on April 12, 2016, 03:27:45 AM
No
that was just the first Part [It Must be??}

Miles will Now "strut around like A primordial Peacock" and if he can keep from Dragging his Knuckles on the sidewalk ...  he will  show how this "BIG REVEAL " will drastically alter Brads MO for working with resonance .

or the 100 other methods shared here "PRIOR" to this "BIG REVEAL"....

Miles please tell Us that wasn't the "Money Shot".......

???

Truly the Point of your "Big Reveal" was to teach something worthy of all this Drama ??
a goal beyond semantics ??

a Bold New Path .....the Honing of the Tool .....?

Bigger... better....stronger ??

Please ??

Unfortunately Chet,MH got that wrong as well,as not all the energy is stored as he states. If it was all stored and then returned,and then all stored again,the wine glass would resonate all day without any input energy.

All of what he said(other that his !all energy stored statement!,has already been stated by other members here. MH has just worded it differently.

Anyway--on with the show.

Brad

tinman

Quote from: shylo on April 12, 2016, 05:30:29 AM
Tinman, I agree the approaching magnet will give rise, but only to the peak of the positive, at TDC that positive peak then reverses instantly to negative peak ,and as the magnet leaves the negative peak rises back to the zero line.??
Why would the decline of the + peak and the propagation of the negative peak take twice as long when only at TDC?
The only way I can see your sine wave is if the core of the coil is twice as wide as the magnet. This would give time for decline of the positive and the rise of the negative.
Not trying to start an argument  just trying to understand.
artv

Because complete flux linkage from the PM to the core will happen just before TDC,as the magnetic fields will curve toward the steel core of the inductor(generating coil). The flux linkage will also remain at it's maximum slightly after TDC due to this magnetic field curve. Let's just say that we get total flux linkage between the PM and the steel core at 1* BTC and 1* after TDC. This gives us 2* where the magnetic field in the core is not changing in time. As the magnetic field is not changing in time,then there will be no EMF produced across the generating coil--as per faradays law of induction states.

Quoteat TDC that positive peak then reverses instantly to negative peak

That simply cannot happen,as can be seen in the AC wave form. You cannot jump from the positive peak of the EMF wave form,to the negative peak of the EMF wave form--you must pass through the 0 volt value first.

Please do not take any notice of MHs messed up timing diagram and associated wave form,as it is incorrect. Faradays law of induction says that it is incorrect. How MH came up with that one--i will never know.

I will put together a test bed,and i will show you in slow motion the wave form that is produced when a magnet passes a coil. I will show from a 10 oclock starting position to a 12 noon finnish,and then from 12 noon to the 2 oclock position,and then a full sweep from 10 oclock to 2 oclock.
We can watch all this in slow motion on my scope.

Will get it done for you ASAP.


Brad

shylo

That will be greatly appreciated. Can you do the test with a iron core and just an air core ?
Looking forward to it. Thanks artv

tinman

Quote from: shylo on April 12, 2016, 06:10:07 AM
That will be greatly appreciated. Can you do the test with a iron core and just an air core ?
Looking forward to it. Thanks artv

I can do that.

So just to clear things up a bit.
when we use 1 single small magnet with a small field,you will(should see a sharp rise in a positive sine EMF (voltage across the coil)as the magnet approaches the coil,and then a sharp decline to the 0 volt line,as the magnet is stopped at the center of the core. As we move the magnet away from the core of the coil,we should see a sharp rise in EMF across the coil,but with a negative sine. I will set the scope up to show the sine being a positive value when the magnet is approaching the core of the coil,and then a negative sine when the magnet is leaving the core of the coil.

When i remove the stopper,and we do a full sweep from 10 oclock to 2 oclock,we will see a sharp transition from peak positive to peak negative--maybe this is what you were talking about?.
But as you will see,the trace on the scope will show that the EMF dose pass through the 0 volt line on the scope,and that will be the point where the magnet is directly inline with the core of the coil.

We will see this more clearly when i do the motor driven generator test,where the frequency will be much higher.

Test setup already half done.


Brad

tinman

Recap from MHs last blast of insult's,and his !!corrected!! version of my diagram.

From MH--you refuse to acknowledge when you are wrong about something to the point of insanity.

From MH--Look at your ridiculous push-back because you made a half-assed diagram of a magnet on a rotor passing a coil.

From MH--Do the experiment properly, document it properly, analyze the data and come to a conclusion.

From MH--In a nutshell, hold yourself up to a higher standard

From MH--In your diagram the output waveform shown does not match the physical setup shown.
You are not going to invent your own reality here.  You made a mistake so suck it up like a man.

From MH--Here you go bubba, I fixed your double mistake.  Open your eyes.
Work on your bloody communication skills.


From me to MH-->unfortunately for you MH,that diagram you modified to show the wave form is incorrect.


From MH-->You've gone full bonkers and you are still wanking away

From MH--The proper diagram is for someone like Shylo, because he would be easily confused by your two incorrect diagrams.  I uploaded the correct diagram and now you can explain it to him.

Below is MHs !correct timing/and associated sine wave diagram description! as he thinks it should be.
All the abuse above is because he think's i made a mistake,and that his diagram of the timing accurately predicts the sine wave he has shown.

As you can read for your selves ,he insists that im still ---well you can read that part for your selves.
He has stated that he corrected the diagram--not for me,but for a fellow experimenter (shylo),so as he would not be misdirected by my mistakes.

MH also claims that he knows faradays law of induction better than most here,and as we have seen,he has made judgments on many fellow experimenters here.
One that comes to mind is EMJ,where MH repeatedly hounded EMJ over his(MHs) stupid coil question. MH felt that he was good enough to pass judgment on EMJ,due to his (MHs)vast superiority in knowledge over EMJ.

I let you (the members of this forum) decide if MHs timing diagram below accurately predicts the wave form he has shown-->or if it is my diagram (the second one below) that depicts the correct wave form for the timing and path of the magnet.

Brad