Marko Rodin Coil -- 007 Device

[MileHigh]

Loner
I would not bother with this question based around a voltage source that dose not exist.
MH is also not able to understand that an ideal voltage cannot be placed across a conductor that has 0 ohms of resistance,and current flowing against that that the ideal voltage wants to create.This is like placing an ideal voltage across an ideal capacitor.
At T=3 seconds--kaboom--bye bye equipment and components.

I wouldnt bother Russ and the crew over on Russ's forum with this rubbish question,it's a waste of time.

Brad

Your comments are idiotic considering that you tried to answer this question yourself.  Saying that an ideal voltage source does not exist is irrelevant and does not invalidate the question in any way.  You are regressing and going back in time, and making irrelevant comments like "an ideal voltage cannot be placed across a conductor that has 0 ohms of resistance" which has nothing to do with the question at all and on top of that you are trying to pretend that I don't understand something.

The question is not rubbish and it is definitely not a waste of time.  This is just sour grapes from you because you struggled and you were unable to answer the question yourself.  Hopefully there are some curious people out there on Russ' forum that will undertake to inform themselves when they realize how relevant the question is as it directly relates to the testing that Russ is going to do.  You are just trying to poison the well out of spite, shame on you.

MileHigh

[3Kelvin]

Hello together,
Is that a OU device?, 6 Meters and a Scope?
https://youtu.be/KJyb9tnlcaw

Enjoy it, it seems to be real.
World is in Resonance.
From Australia  to Tokio.

Love and Peace
3Kelvin

[TinselKoala]

Hello together,
Is that a OU device?, 6 Meters and a Scope?
https://youtu.be/KJyb9tnlcaw

Enjoy it, it seems to be real.
World is in Resonance.
From Australia  to Tokio.

Love and Peace
3Kelvin

Nunez again, and again with "comments disabled" -- one of the main signs that the video uploader is FOS, since he can't answer criticisms or explain why, if his thing is so "OU", it can't run itself.
Garbage in, reactive garbage out, yet again. To answer your question... No, it's not an OU device. It's a resonant tank circuit, with circulating reactive power, and cannot sustain a real output that is greater than the input. The same thing can be shown using ordinary coils.

[tinman]

 author=MileHigh link=topic=16650.msg486471#msg486471 date=1466169602]

and making irrelevant comments like "an ideal voltage cannot be placed across a conductor that has 0 ohms of resistance" which has nothing to do with the question at all and on top of that you are trying to pretend that I don't understand something.

The mistake you keep making,is looking only at the inductor,and not the ideal voltage source.
The fact that current can continue to flow through the ideal voltage source,when the voltage across the ideal sources terminals is 0,means there is no impedance to that current flow,and there for no resistance through the current path of the ideal voltage source. Regardless as to how the inductor reacts to a voltage placed across it,in no way determines or changes the current path through the ideal voltage source--which remains as a non resistive current path--these are things you should know.

Your comments are idiotic considering that you tried to answer this question yourself.

I gave you the generic answer,and by your comment after that,it was clear that you were not expecting me to do that--but i did.
But i still say it is incorrect,and it is now your job to prove me wrong--which you cant,as you do not have an ideal voltage source(nor dose one exist)that describes the one used in the answer given to your question.

Saying that an ideal voltage source does not exist is irrelevant and does not invalidate the question in any way.

A clear indication you are on a fools quest with your question,claiming to be able to validate an answer based around a non existent circuit. This would be no different to me saying i can validate what the magnetic force is,without having to provide any type of proof.

The question is not rubbish and it is definitely not a waste of time.  This is just sour grapes from you because you struggled and you were unable to answer the question yourself.

Based on the fact that your question is based around non existent voltage sources,then you are unable to qualify your answer--this is fact.

Hopefully there are some curious people out there on Russ' forum that will undertake to inform themselves when they realize how relevant the question is as it directly relates to the testing that Russ is going to do.  You are just trying to poison the well out of spite, shame on you.

Absolute rubbish,as there experimenting has nothing what so ever to do with ideal voltage sources and ideal coils of that size.

I hope you do not contaminate Russ's forum ,like you have contaminated this one.



Brad

[picowatt]

At T=3 seconds--kaboom--bye bye equipment and components.

Perhaps this thought experiment will help...

An audio power amplifier is, within its drive capabilities, a very close approximation of an ideal voltage source.  A professional PA amplifier capable of driving several hundred watts or more into a 4R load with a damping factor of 400 will have an output impedance around .01R and will have many amps of current source or sink capability.  As would an ideal voltage source, the power amplifier will source or sink current even when its output is zero volts.

Connect an FG to such an amplifier's input and set the FG and amplifier so that the amplifier output is a 60VPP 1kHz sine wave.  Now, connect a 5mH inductor with a .1R DC resistance directly across the amplifier's output.

As the sine wave on the amplifier output reverses from its +30 volt peak towards its -30 volt peak, do you expect to see a huge current spike commensurate with the amplifier's .01R output impedance and the inductor's .1R DC resistance or do you expect to see current flow more so in line with the 31.4R reactance of the 5mH inductor at 1kHz?

If the FG is switched to produce a 1kHz square wave of 60VPP at the amplifier's output, do you expect a huge current spike as the square waveform at the amplifier output rapidly transitions from +30 to -30, or again, do you expect to see current flow more so in line with the inductor's 31.4R impedance at the 1kHz fundamental (the impedance/reactance will be greater for the harmonics added to the sine wave to produce the square wave). 

In both examples above, how will changing the DC resistance of the inductor affect the outcome?  Will a 5mH inductor with a .01R or .001R DC resistance significantly affect the observed current flow?

What if the 5mH inductor had zero ohms of DC resistance?  Would that have a significant effect on the amplifier's output current in the examples above?

How will lowering or raising the frequency of the applied waveform affect the results?

As stated, this is just a thought experiment, consider the questions rhetorical...

PW

(With regard to the above, please assume the amplifier to have zero volts of DC offset)