SMOT! - (previously about the OC MPMM)

[Low-Q]

@Low-Q,

Of course. Because with the magnets, as seen, CoE is violated. With the magnets A to B isn't equal to C to A, correct?

No. A to B equals A to C with magnets - if not, the ball would never be able to move from B to C.

A to B is less than A to C without magnets - but then there is no excess force to move the ball from level B to level C

B to C is the difference between AB and AC.

The problem is how to move the ball from B to C without magnets.

CoE is not violated in both ways - both with and witout magnets. Think again

Vidar

[Omnibus]

@Low-Q,

This is obviously incorrect.

[Low-Q]

@Low-Q,

This is obviously incorrect.

Nope. It's as correct as possible. So far you have just stated that this device is violating CoE because C to A is different from B to A. And not taken one single moment to explain why. So please do it, if you have any idea how it works out at all.

I'm done for now, waiting for the OC Magnetic Perpetual Motion Machine to prove its potential

br.

Vidar

[Omnibus]

@Low-Q,

So far you have just stated that this device is violating CoE because C to A is different from B to A. And not taken one single moment to explain why.

Why? Because B and C are not equipotential, as you insist they are in the presence of the magnet. Why not? Well, because the experiment shows that--if they were equipotential the ball wouldn't have moved from B to C.

Curiously, and that's the violation of CoE, when the ball is at B it prefers to lose energy in going towards C (in addition to the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)| which it will lose anyway when it's back at A) rather than lose it (lose just the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)|) by going back to A and obeying CoE.

And, by the way, learn some elementary physics. It isn't true that "The magnetic force is therefor, in respect to A, greater than the magnetic force in point B." It's just the opposite, the magnetic force at B is greater than at A.

[oak]

@Low-Q,

So far you have just stated that this device is violating CoE because C to A is different from B to A. And not taken one single moment to explain why.

Why? Because B and C are not equipotential, as you insist they are in the presence of the magnet. Why not? Well, because the experiment shows that--if they were equipotential the ball wouldn't have moved from B to C.

Curiously, and that's the violation of CoE, when the ball is at B it prefers to lose energy in going towards C (in addition to the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)| which it will lose anyway when it's back at A) rather than lose it (lose just the energy |(mgh1 - (Ma - Mb)|) by going back to A and obeying CoE.

And, by the way, learn some elementary physics. It isn't true that "The magnetic force is therefor, in respect to A, greater than the magnetic force in point B." It's just the opposite, the magnetic force at B is greater than at A.

Hi Omnibus.  You never give up, do you.  Maybe you should go back and re-read this page:
http://www.overunity.com/index.php/topic,3871.150.html
I guess you didn't read my comments closely enough.  You are not helping your cause.