SMOT! - (previously about the OC MPMM)

[Omnibus]

That's right, everyone got the picture already. You're confusing force with energy and that's a common confusion among novices. Prudent novices, unlike you, try to learn something and are not arrogant and obnoxious.

[shruggedatlas]

The Ma versus Mb is something I have actually wondered about.  From one standpoint A is farther away from the center of the magnets than B, so there should be higher potential magnetic energy at A.  On the other hand, if A is so far away from the magnet center that it will never get to it, does it have any magnetic potential at all?.  This is very confusing to me and I have no idea which is right.  I suppose you could say that because gravity is stronger than the magnetic pull at A, this is why the ball remains at rest at A, but in fact it does have greater potential energy than it would at B.  On the other hand, the magnetic field only extends so far, and even in gravity-free space, if A is just too far from the magnets to be attracted at all, you would have to say the magnetic potential is zero.

It's like taking an object 10 light years away from the sun, in empty space.  What is its gravitational potential energy?  One should conclude that it's zero, since it is too far away to be attracted (assume that's true - I am not an expert in astronomy).  Or would you assume gravity is there?

[Omnibus]

@shruggedatlas,

Focus just on the magnetic field and recall that the magnetic field force changes with distance unlike the force of gravity which is practically constant at all distances in our case. Then, recall what potential energy is. This is energy of the position isn't it and amounts to work necessary to move the ball from one position to another in the conservative field? Ma is the work necessary to be done to move the ball in question from C to A while Mb is equal to the work to move it from C to B, correct? Now recall what's work--force time distance, isn't it? Because of the changing magnitude of the magnetic field force Ma and Mb are integrals of that force time distance, correct? Thus, although at A (which is more distant than B from C) the force of the magnetic field is smaller than at B the integral in question at A is greater than that at B. Thus, in going from A to B the ball loses magnetic potential energy because Ma > Mb. Does this make it clearer?

[tinu]

Thus, although at A (which is more distant than B from C) the force of the magnetic field is smaller than at B the integral in question at A is greater than that at B.

From the cycle: ?Integral calculus for kinder garden?: Let?s play math and science. Where is my proof, mom?

Thus, in going from A to B the ball loses magnetic potential energy because Ma > Mb. Does this make it clearer?

From the cycle ?Circular logic is my middle name?: It is so because it has to be so and I said it is so already! Clear?
Well, not sure but it could be also from the cycle?I am the God of science?. And shut up or I'll say it again and again, then it surely has to be so. Clear? Don't answer! You annoy me already, you impudent ignorant!

That's right, everyone got the picture already. You're confusing force with energy and that's a common confusion among novices. Prudent novices, unlike you, try to learn something and are not arrogant and obnoxious.

That's surely from the cycle ?Maybe others will buy it?: Let?s thrown with shit around anyway; I have plenty of it already.

Does F=-grad(E) mean something to you?
I guess it should, but then you?d know that measuring force is also a measure of magnetic potential variation.

Tinu

[Omnibus]

@tinu,

Stop posting crap here.