Help with Ed Leedskalnin Riddle , any idea .

[Mk1]

Mk1 ? uhm. What is that inside the interwoven triangle

Sorry , the triangle represents the wheel ... the u-shaped is the stator .

We know the the PMH hold the charge or spin ...

Inside the triangle is the nasa space shuttle .  just kidding

Its a primitive tool , most likely , well i don't know the word check the second picture .  But it is also a pendulum ...

Mark

[TEKTRON]

@all

Gravity theory shows at as 2 waves hitting the same point at the same time .

Look at the picture the heavy chain on top is moving to the beat of the wheel

It is following the arm , there is also a iron bar perpendicular to the wheel.

Both of those are iron , under stress from the wheel , both are linked to chains (chains conduct magnetism like a copper wire electricity ).

And finally both are 90 degrees apart physically and in operation .

I bet that on the rock you need one chain on top and one on the side .

There is also some indication of the use of electricity more on that soon...

Hint the bottles ( glass contains electricity ) caps , magnetic quench , spark gap...

Mark

A variable capacitor? Just add water.

[david lambright]

Physics Model
Hey Van, what i meant was square the numbers by squaring one hundred times any other number ends in a nine before it goes back to one. Try this with both numbers, .7129 and .6105195. That point is the infinite point. Super conductivity and super fluidity show us that the infinite exists. Any number that you do this with with either come up ones and zeros, or nines. Pi shows us the infinite by squaring the numbers .7129 all the way back near zero you will get 98. That is the point of incidence. Square the next one, .61059195 and you will get the same thing, .99998. then it goes to one??Every other number squared to the end becomes.99999 one. EVERY ONE BUT THOSE 2....try it...pull up your windows calculator and see for your self ....see how they are a line of either 99999s or 0000000s Notice how the ones and zeros co-relate to the shape of inside a sphere. The inside of the sphere is equal to one. draw a circle....imagine 99999s with their tails sticking through with a 0 on the outside ...with a value of 1....a FULL sphere ..EVERY WHERE BUT 2 POINTS....do the calculations again .... But yet, every quarter is equal to one. now multiply .1 times .314 We know about super fluidity, super conductivity etc. This proves infinity. expansion at a ratio of one to four Leedskalin's numbers show us the angle of the infinite ray. Think about it like this, you are standing on a bubble and the floor is zero degrees and infinite. At eye level is the next boundary level. An infinite point is an infinite line, inside of a sphere is equal to a point mathematically. Pi times radius squared. Now you realize that it is a reflection of the infinite. No matter what number you put in a computer calculator etc. and square it a hundred times only two numbers end in 98 before they go to one, this proves the infinite ray mathematically. Infinite ray is unidirectional, infinite line is bidirectional. Infinite line can become infinite disc, infinite bi-directionality gives us spin which gives us attraction and repulsion which is magnetism and gravity. Why is pi only infinite at one point? Because it is a perfect mathematically correct reflection of the infinite. Phase shift problems with parabolic mirrors, the reflected ray from a parabolic mirror does not phase shift again. The main ray upon reflection shifts. This proves reflection. The Electron Phase Shift some of this theory applies also.....i need to post this but my next posts will be Leedskalnins method .....and the experimental proof that is irrefutable......pull up your windows calculator in the mean time and see......david

[david lambright]

         http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bu6L2M2gpu4&feature=related   this video shows the 4 components of a di-pole magnetic field..... the one main and 3 reflections.....the reflection of the beam puts it out of phase with the main beam this is what permanent magnetism is.....the reflected beam does not shift....the mechanics of it are this;...infinite ray is reflected.no phase shift....reflected ray is split and shifts....this produces the attractive and repulsive force....a laser uses these principles ...this infinite beam or ray, i will show, makes all of the forces... Eienstien equation, E-mc2,  shows this form exactly.....this also explains why i felt a pulling/pushing when i used mirrors in my experiments... .   http://www.google.com/url?sa=t&source=web&cd=6&ved=0CEEQFjAF&url=http%3A%2F%2Fambermd.org%2FQuestions%2Fgibbs.html&ei=O_o8TdvhBI3GsAPUw9HQAw&usg=AFQjCNH7vvOVQbmkwawVNTcp9X4e5WX0Uw&sig2=LF6NA0Dai0dp-IFifBXUMQ   in this article, they talk about Gibbs energy and its forward only directionality, AND only when 0>1...but this is a reflected beam so maybe its 9>1 ...like the square root math shows...this is exactly describing the forward only infinite ray i am talking about.......light follows this same pattern...in my experiments, using a laser, i was able to pump the energy to a higher level, increasing the visible flow of energy....the principles are correct.....the math says this is correct... experiments by me and others are saying this is correct....i have seen this energy flowing.....checkout the ferro fluid video again...at 30 sec see how the shape wavers?....this is the same type of distortion seen around devices....if this is nothing, it will fade away ....but it is what i claim and it will continue to grow.....i will post vids when i get some good footage.....david

[david lambright]

http://sn113w.snt113.mail.live.com/att/GetAttachment.aspx?tnail=0&messageId=6f7418bb-2924-11e0-a10c-002264c154b4&Aux=54|0|8CD8B485920B590||0|0|0|0||&maxwidth=220&maxheight=160&size=Att     http://sn113w.snt113.mail.live.com/att/GetAttachment.aspx?tnail=1&messageId=6f7418bb-2924-11e0-a10c-002264c154b4&Aux=54|0|8CD8B485920B590||0|0|0|0||&maxwidth=220&maxheight=160&size=Att   these are a couple of overlays to visualize this model