Splitting the electron stream

[gravityblock]

Here's the link, http://www.energeticforum.com/renewable-energy/showthread.php?t=6872

Please feel free to discuss it here also.

Thanks,

GB

[void109]

In short, the orbo effect is a convergence or Impedance Match of the L/R Time Constant between the current and the voltage.

The inductance of the coil is 961mH at the beginning of the pulse in the Steorn demo talks. At the end of the pulse, the inductance of the coil is 984mH. The difference in inductance between the start and end of the pulse is 23mH. This difference of 23mH divided by 0.63 is 36.5. Let's round 36.5 up to 37. Watch the first minute of this Steorn video to see what I'm talking about.

Let me explain the significance of 23mH, 0.63 and 37. The L/R TIME CONSTANT determines the time required for current in an inductor to reach a specific value. One L/R time constant is the time required for the current in an inductor to increase to 63 percent (actually 63.2 percent or 0.632) of the maximum current (Voltage source divided by Resistance), thus the reason for dividing 23mH by 0.63. Each time constant is equal to the time required for the current to increase by 63.2 percent of the difference in value between the current flowing in the inductor and the maximum current. Maximum current flows in the inductor after five L/R time constants are completed.

What do you think happens to the voltage in the inductor? The voltage in the inductor will fall approximately 37% of the initial voltage in a time equal to the TIME CONSTANT, thus the reason why 23mH divided by 0.63 equals 37. The voltage will fall another 37% for the next time constant, and so on.

What is the importance in the 23mH? It's the number which relates both the L/R time constant of the voltage and current for an impedance match between them, and may also be the pulse width in degrees. This means when the current rises 100% of its maximum current in the first time constant, the voltage will not drop in a time equal to the time constant. The current will reach 100% of its maximum current in the first time constant, because there is a 100% transfer of energy in the first pass (the complete transfer of energy doesn't occur in 5 L/R time constants, but happens in 1 L/R time constant when there is an impedance match) There is no BEMF or CEMF in this system, not even when building the magnetic field in the coil. When there is an impedance match, then there is a 100% energy transfer in 1 L/R time constant.

I'm not a member of the SKDB or associated with Steorn in any way. I found a correlation between the L/R TIME CONSTANT and A CONVERGENCE OF THE MOTION CONSTANTS in the publication on the "Quantization of Energy" by Frank Znidarsic on page 9 of 12. All credits go to Frank Znidarsic for his research on the quantum transitional speed, so I could make this connection!

Thanks GB!  I have a question about why you chose to divide the inductance delta between the two positions or states (23mH) by the time constant percentage (63.2%).  I understand that by doing so you can do some maths to wind up landing on FZ's quantum transition speed.  But is that just a fun coincidence or is there a fundamental reason why you chose to do so?  You said:

The voltage in the inductor will fall approximately 37% of the initial voltage in a time equal to the TIME CONSTANT, thus the reason why 23mH divided by 0.63 equals 37

As I understand it (just read about it now, so forgive obvious mistakes), 63.2% is the value used to determine the L/R time constant.  I dont intuitively understand how that percentage relates to the inductance delta, and why you would divide it as you have done.  Can you help me understand the reason?

Quick note to others on 'e' from what I've read.

e = Euler's number
1/e = 0.367879441
1 - 1/e = 0.632120559

Thanks much!    I've been enjoying seattle4truth's youtube videos on Frank Znidarsics work, waiting for the next episode.  Also trying to work through the math on my own, I'm a bit rusty

[void109]

The L/R TIME CONSTANT determines the time required for current in an inductor to reach a specific value. One L/R time constant is the time required for the current in an inductor to increase to 63 percent (actually 63.2 percent or 0.632) of the maximum current (Voltage source divided by Resistance), thus the reason for dividing 23mH by 0.63.

I think this needs to be corrected?

The L/R TIME CONSTANT is determined by the amount of time required for current in an inductor to reach a specific value (63.2% of maximum current).

The way you wrote it sounds like the L/R TC is what determines the time required, but from what I read, the time required IS the constant, which you derive from L, R and 63.2% (1-1/e). 

This might just be semantics, but that was a confusing point for me when trying to work through what you posted

[gravityblock]

I think this needs to be corrected?

The L/R TIME CONSTANT is determined by the amount of time required for current in an inductor to reach a specific value (63.2% of maximum current).

The way you wrote it sounds like the L/R TC is what determines the time required, but from what I read, the time required IS the constant, which you derive from L, R and 63.2% (1-1/e). 

This might just be semantics, but that was a confusing point for me when trying to work through what you posted

Study the graph in Figure (1)1. - L/R time constant found on this page,  http://www.sayedsaad.com/fundmental/9_inductance%20of%20a%20coil.%20.htm , along with the formula TC in seconds = L / R, while remembering there are 5 L/R TC required for the current to rise to it's maximum current (V_s/R).  This means it takes 5 L/R TC to transfer 100% of the total energy due to 37% of the energy being reflected back in each of the 5 L/R TC.  When 100% of the total energy is transferred in 1 L/R TC, then there is no energy to be reflected back to work against the applied voltage, thus no BEMF.  I Hope this helps.  I'm not the best at putting my thoughts into words, sorry.

GB

[void109]

I appreciate your effort to explain your thoughts!

You are referring to 100% energy transfer during 1 L/T TC.  Was there evidence of this behavior in Steorn's demonstrations or is this your speculation as to what is occurring?

I think I saw in S4T's videos that when the mechanical resonant frequency of the nuclei in an atom matches the speed of light in the material that energy transfer would be 100% and instantaneous.  Did I understand that correctly?  That may be why I'm hanging up on this, because instant is ∞ greater than Ï,,.

I have to watch the videos a second and third time, picking them apart, and working through the math to internalize it.  Right now I just have a sense of what Frank's work means and implies, I need to understand.  I should just duck into a hole for a few weeks until I do.  I don't want to derail what you're doing with inappropriate questions.

Still learning!