Free Solid State/mechanical energy

[Charlie_V]

barbosi

If you ask an engineer why the magnetic field is dynamic and the electric field is static, you will probably get ?That?s just the way it is? as your answer.

Hehehe, yea thats probably what you would get!  But I wouldn't say that if you asked me.

The capacity of the electric circuit corresponds to the pliability of the spring and the inductance to the mass of the weight." 

It looks to me the other way around:
- mass (aka inductance, aka magnetism) suggests the power (?)
- pliability (aka capacity, aka electrostatic field) suggests the motion (?)

Tesla has it right.  Its easiest to imagine the spring first.  What does a spring do?  It holds potential energy.  You squeeze it down and it holds the energy in tension (a static force).  Static energy is potential.  So capacitance is the static energy of the electrical system. 

Inductance is equal to mass.  In a mechanical system, a mass put into motion holds kinetic energy (its moving and doesn't want to stop).  If you get a truck rolling and try to stop it, its pretty hard to stop.  Likewise, the inductor stores the kinetic energy of the circuit.  When current is all of a sudden stopped, the inductor will try to keep it going, like the truck does. 

I would like to note that this idea of the inductor as a kinetic energy storer is one of my own concoctions.  Modern physics says that inductors (and permanent magnets) store potential energy - I think this is so so wrong!  Magnetic fields are the kinetic energy of the universe. 

Static fields produce the motion, the motion produces the static fields (the two snakes eating each other). 


Now I've been thinking, if two objects are the same mass, then if they were made to vibrate each other, they would each have to generate the same amount of force (they are balanced so to speak).  IF it really is true that a circuit with high Q produces audible sounds without an input voltage, then I think this is where the extra energy would come from to overcome wire resistance.  Having the masses balanced would make sure there was no extra strain on either of the coils when one of them was physically moving.  I'm just thinking out loud, what do you guys think? 

midnight_blue
If I remember right, the secondary is composed of four coils.  Does each coil have to match the quarter wavelength? Or do all four of them combined need to be a quarter wavelength?  I would think all four together should, but I don't know.  This is important for frequency calculating. 

Heres another thing, if we are going to start worrying about the rate that the current flows in the secondary, then my earlier statements about calculating L and then matching C won't work.  This is because I was assuming that the length of the secondary (all the coils combined) was short enough (or the frequency was slow enough) so that you can neglect the time (time it takes the current to traverse the circuit) and use lump circuit elements (which is what typical values of capacitors and inductors are). 

If the wire length is important, which I suppose it is since Erfinder made it a point to make those calculations, then we need to use something else - distributed circuit elements.  This gets complicated and I'm not really sure how you make the calculations.  The easiest way to solve the problem is the old fashioned way.  Make the frequency calculation (using Tesla's formula [wavelength = velocity/frequency]), build the circuit according to that, and apply the calculated frequency (with a function generator hooked to the primary coils) and start adjusting it down till you get the max voltage at the capacitor terminals.  When you reach the true quarter wavelength, the secondary coils will act like a quarter wave resonator - the resonant frequency for these is a little different than what you would calculate from a series LC circuit. 

Basically whatever your calculated frequency is in Tesla's formula (assuming you use the speed of light as your velocity) the REAL frequency will be lower because current does not travel at the speed of light in a wire - it goes a little slower, around 10% slower - so multiplying your frequency by 0.9 would give you a more accurate value.  But its better to just set it up and measure.  This is why Tesla says, "this estimate being based on the velocity of propagation of the disturbance through the coil itself and the circuit with which it is designed to be used."  Otherwise, he would of instructed to just use the speed of light all the time.

The goal is still the same though, keep the impedance of the secondary low, and the impedance of the primary high.  Drive the secondary circuit with voltage (from the primary) and let the current developed in the secondary move the motor - still 90 degrees apart. 

Sorry, this might be too much all at once... I always get a little carried away

[barbosi]

Hello,

Here is something that bothers me and I cannot find an answer.
In attached figure (modified from a brnbrade picture - thanks) with some references added. It's all about the coils F6 and G6 with their connection in the "sweet spot".
I included also for both coils the terminals 1 and 2 for each.

Question 1: Who can tel me why coil G6 has the polarity N' and not S'. Please consider terminals F6-1 and G6-1 which normally should produce the same pole polarity. Is it intended the potentials at the capacitor's terminals to be 180 degree?

Question 2: Is a re-run question. Please note coils F are connected in clock-wise direction, while after the "sweet spot" coils G go back (counter clock-wise). Why Do you think Tesla did it this way? He simply could after the "sweet spot" to go to the next clock wise available G coil and go, and go up to the last one, which would be connected to capacitor. I see a sort of symmetry around the "sweet spot" which I could consider it the "Void". I "see" a sort of vortex with the big opening of the funnel at the capacitor H and the minimum at the sweet spot. Is more like a feeling which I'm not very good at explaining. Maybe I could inspire someone who could make more sense than I do.

Thanks.

[Maximumgravity1]

Gahhhh... I lost my post....I don't have time to retype it.  In short, the answer to

Question 1: Who can tel me why coil G6 has the polarity N' and not S'

Is found in Lines 90-99 of the patent.  The windings of poles B are wound in such a direction as to induce the same magnetism as that from the primary.  Also, your diagram is labeled as E6, but I think that is the same coil we are talking about.  It is getting its polarity from the primary N in the counter-clockwise direction.  I can't quite understand your numbering system, so I am not going to attempt to state which number it would be.  It is the one in the 8 o'clock position.

As for why did he reverse the winding direction instead of continuing along, I think it is because ERFINDER has told us that these 12 coils are the 12 plates of a capacitor.  If I understand correctly, a capacitor needs opposite charges on the plates to function correctly.  If Tesla continued around the circle clockwise, he would have the same charges on those coils  I am re-referencing my diagram, as it makes it easier for me to see - hopefully it will help others as well.


The question I am forced to ask is why then do we need the capacitor?  Couldn't the same action have been accomplished with two closed loop circuits?  What is the condenser resiting?  Which alternating electrostatic fields is it impeding?  What exactly is it filtering?

[midnight_blue]

charlie_v,

    Hehe, ohhh k, I'm still mulling that over. gotta like it, gotta like it alot.

The question I am forced to ask is why then do we need the capacitor?  Couldn't the same action have been accomplished with two closed loop circuits?  What is the condenser resiting?  Which alternating electrostatic fields is it impeding?  What exactly is it filtering?

I believe barbosi answered this, anyway...
Capacitors pass AC much better than DC. Capacitors are arranged as a highpass filter placed in series with the
primary. At 60 Hz, this is nearly an open circuit(blocking). At 1 megahertz, though, the capacitor puts very little reactance into the circuit(filtering).
 
         __1__   
Xc = 2 Ïâ,¬  fc

where Xc is capacitive reactance, f is frequency, c is capacitance. So as frequency increases, Xc gets smaller

[barbosi]

Maximumgravity,
I'm sorry I don't buy this and I'll try to explain why. I think here is the key of the working mechanism. I reposted and corrected the drawing there was a typo, instead of E6, you should read G6. Also I added reference F1 and G1.

You should also consider (imaginary - not in the drawing) the primary and the voltage at connection to AC supply. Lets say left connection is "Null" or "Ground" and the right connection goes to the hot wire.

So a max voltage in primary E1 (not shown) will induce a max voltage in F1. Similarly, will have an "induced Null" at F6-1 (surprised this is the sweet spot?) If you think, what is after the "sweet spot" (voltage in G coil circuit) it looks like the "ghost" or simulated situation of what we have in F circuit. Going up to capacitor H, We'll have the double voltage of what we induced. Kind of differential mode, the potentials at the capacitor connections are always the same as value but with a different sign (180 degrees shift)...
Because is the "ghost" we have North as shown on coil G6...

I'm not sure if the same could be if after "sweet spot" we had to go the same direction with the coils (clock-wise).

This was the reason of my association with a vortex. At capacitor two opposed potentials and at the "sweet spot" is the bottom of the funnel.

I struggle also with what kind of wire length... for a quarter wave length... is looks more like a half...

Anyway, this is still a fuzzy picture and this is the reason to ask you all if you find a logic in what I see too.
If I knew the answers, I would have just stated to you and look for answering your questions.

Bye.

PS: Later added arguments.
a. Think you didn't have G coils at all, what to do with terminal F6-1 was pretty simple but no gain here. You have REAL induced fields and that's it.
b. Now if you have the G coils, there is the opportunity to build and run a ghost. Ghost fields, imaginary fields. Remember complex numbers? imaginary = i? i gives you 90 degrees? torque?

If it was me I would have to choose solution a. (not to mention in fact that the first impulse would have been "no coils F" at all).

But Tesla have seen the advantage to build that ghost...
Don't ignore the primary coils, what is their individual contribution to their relative secondaries... What is "pumped" in coils F, is "sucked" in coils G.