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Overunity Machines Forum



Ultimate proof of Magnetic Vortex, free book and videos

Started by TheoriaApophasis, July 13, 2014, 04:20:12 AM

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TheoriaApophasis

Quote from: picowatt on August 03, 2014, 04:47:50 PM
If instead, we consider instead your claim of electrical induction as being the involved mechanism, one would expect that not only the maximum field strength applied, but as well, the RATE at which that field is applied to determine the strength of the new magnet produced (as per Faraday).  In the example above, if we consider "electrical induction" as the magnetizing mechanism, applying the power to the electromagnet in a short, fast pulse would produce a more powerful magnet than would slowly ramping up and down the voltage to the electromagnet, irregardless of achieving an identical peak field strength in both cases.  If this is indeed your thinking, that is an experimentally testable hypothesis and, most likely, the results to same are likely already known.

You are terminally stupid.

Wrong, its called the "limit of DIELECTRIC SATURATION" ................  you have NEVER read Maxwell,  Steinmetz, nor Heaviside,  this much is 100% OBVIOUS.


Quote from: picowatt on August 03, 2014, 04:47:50 PM
Back in the days of AlNiCo, it was common on assembly lines to use a conveyer system to pass the alnico pre-magnet's between the poles of a huge u-shaped electromagnet fed by continuous DC.  As well, even today, eddy currents induced into electrically conductive pre-magnets by fast pulses are both problematic and desirable to avoid.  The eddy currents produce fields in opposition to the magnetizing field (limiting achievable strength) and as well produce undesired heating within the pre-magnet.  Also, with respect to sintered NdFeB magnets, the nickel, or nickel over copper plating, typically applied to their exterior is most certainly a far better conductor than the sintered matrix.  Any electrical current induced in these magnets would most likely be concentrated in the plating, causing significant temperature rise there (perhaps to the point of damaging the plating).  Because of this, even in pulsed magnetizers, the rate of change must be controlled to some degree to prevent overly powerful eddy currents and heating (at least with electrically conductive pre-magnets).


So, in your insane stupidity have you FORGOTTEN the diff. between DIelectricity and ELECTRICITY????????????       Idiot


Phi (mag) x Psi (dielectric)  = Q (PLANCK / electricity).


You are , again,  "terminally stupid"




Quote from: picowatt on August 03, 2014, 04:47:50 PM
With all of the above said, I have difficulty believing that the magnetization process is primarily electrical in nature (other than Lorenz forces acting within the pre-magnet against the applied field).


Magnetize what son?
   Magnetism is POSTERIOR, is the RESULTANT Of a CHARGE in discharge (= magnetism = polarization).


Where the hell did you think the charge transferred the capacitance to dummy???   ROFL


Again,  TERMINALLY STUPID  ;D ;D ;D ;D




Quote from: picowatt on August 03, 2014, 04:47:50 PM
However, I will try to contact an engineer this week that should be able to answer any question regarding magnetization strength being a function of rate of change of the magnetizer's field (or the rate at which the pre-magnet is made to advance towards, or recede from, the poles of a fixed magnetizer field).  Possibly this does have an effect which would support your contentions.  However, if only the peak field strength achieved is the determinant, and not the rate, I would say this to be in further support of conventional thinking.


So, youre going to ask AN IDIOT to verify existing IDIOCY?????????????????   Haaa!!!!

strength has several variables,  cintering, hexagonal matrix of the NeoFeBoron, composition, etc etc

mostly however "limit of DIELECTRIC SATURATION".

picowatt

So again, are you saying that the mechanism involved in aligning the magnetic moments of a pre-magnet are rate dependent as per Faraday?

In other words, given a magnetizing field of a certain strength (oersteds), it is not just the peak flux value acheived but rather the rate at which that peak flux is applied (i.e., dV/dt) that determines the strength of the flux in and retained by the pre-magnet?  Even below saturation, do you believe there is a rate dependency? (with saturation defined as the maximum number of magnetic moments that can be caused to align within the pre-magnet)

PW

(Also, an effort on your part to show a bit more respect would be most appreciated)

TinselKoala

Quote from: TheoriaApophasis on August 03, 2014, 05:57:49 PM

How did you think a solenoid or electromagnet WORKED moron?    ;D ;D    Pathetic



Phi (magnetism) x Psi (dielectric) = Q Planck (electrification)


The discharge of electricity in losing its dielectric component LEAVES you with the radiation/termination =  Magnetism

Thank you for demonstrating that, ONCE AGAIN, you cannot cite a proper reference that supports your claim that even an eighth-grade book says that "Magnetism is the TERMINATION OF ELECTRICITY." Moron!

Maybe you should have stayed in college a little longer, so you could have learned how to back up your silly claims with proper reference citations. Of course... if there actually ARE NO such references, as in each case I have challenged you on..... you can always resort to your standard argument: I am an idiot, terminally stupid and you know everything. That will show them all what a Great Buddhist Scientist you really are. Won't it? You don't need no stinking REFERENCES that support your wild claims .... all you need is to assert.

Of course... when it comes to ENGINEERING.... your assertions fall flat on their face and you must resort to those equations you revile and the people you call idiots like Feynman and Einstein... because their models WORK and yours DO NOT.

TinselKoala

Quote from: picowatt on August 03, 2014, 06:16:31 PM
So again, are you saying that the mechanism involved in aligning the magnetic moments of a pre-magnet are rate dependent as per Faraday?

In other words, given a magnetizing field of a certain strength (oersteds), it is not just the peak flux value acheived but rather the rate at which that peak flux is applied (i.e., dV/dt) that determines the strength of the flux in and retained by the pre-magnet?  Even below saturation, do you believe there is a rate dependency? (with saturation defined as the maximum number of magnetic moments that can be caused to align within the pre-magnet)

PW

(Also, an effort on your part to show a bit more respect would be most appreciated)

Surely you jest. You can go back years, looking at his saved blogs, his comments on Amazon, his "largest Metaphysical site on the net", all of that, and you will never see this leopard changing his spots. His rhetorical "style" has gotten him banned from forum after forum and even from blog-hosting sites. That is why he needs so many different internet aliases!