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MH's ideal coil and voltage question

Started by tinman, May 08, 2016, 04:42:41 AM

Previous topic - Next topic

0 Members and 4 Guests are viewing this topic.

Can a voltage exist across an ideal inductor that has a steady DC current flowing through it

yes it can
5 (25%)
no it cannot
11 (55%)
I have no idea
4 (20%)

Total Members Voted: 20

poynt99

Quote from: tinman on June 29, 2016, 01:20:18 PM
This seems to go against what we discussed before Poynt.
We agreed that the CEMF is what limits the current,and stops it from going straight to its steady state value.
Yes.

Quote
A voltage appears across a resistor as soon as it is placed across that resistor.
If, as in my example, we have a lumped resistor/inductor model (see below), the voltage across the resistor compared to the voltage across the inductance at t=0 will be very small, depending on the L/R ratio.

At this point the inductor's cemf and the applied Vin will be equal. Yet current begins to flow. Eventually due to the R, the A/s will taper off and the current will settle at I(max).

Now once again, what happens as we make R smaller and smaller?
question everything, double check the facts, THEN decide your path...

Simple Cheap Low Power Oscillators V2.0
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Towards Realizing the TPU V1.4: http://www.overunity.com/index.php?action=downloads;sa=view;down=217
Capacitor Energy Transfer Experiments V1.0: http://www.overunity.com/index.php?action=downloads;sa=view;down=209

minnie




   When R reduced to zero with ideal inductor current will
   increase to an infinite amount in an infinite time??

picowatt

Quote from: minnie on June 29, 2016, 03:08:42 PM


   When R reduced to zero with ideal inductor current will
   increase to an infinite amount in an infinite time??

Assuming 4 volts across 5H, when R is reduced to zero, current will rise towards an infinite amount at the rate of .8 amps per second...

PW

minnie




   Can you have  a current flowing without a voltage difference in space?
          John.

MileHigh

Quote from: partzman on June 29, 2016, 11:35:58 AM
Actually MH doesn't every scope shot of an inductor with a voltage applied across it's terminals generating a linear current rise give proof that Emf = L*dI/dt or rearranging di = Emf*dt/L? Where is the evidence of Cemf? So, anyone adhering to the notion that Emf = Cemf in a single inductor has the burden of proof IMO to show by experiment or math derivation that it exists.

By definition, Cemf is opposite to Emf.  The current increase in the above example is in phase with the applied Emf and follows Faraday's law without Lenz. How do we justify any amount of negative Cemf to be added to the Emf and still adhere to Faraday's law? I am willing to change my view if and when I see something convincing.

pm

Edit

This is really just to acknowledge your comments.  You have a very good understanding of things and I just don't have the fire in my belly to get into it.  I made a few comments but I am more of a passive observer at this point.

MileHigh