IS THIS A REACTIONLESS DRIVE OR A PERPETUAL MOTION MACHINE?

[George1]

Here is again an abstract from our post from May 16, 2019, 09:35:12 AM. "It is evident that we can always choose a suitable combination of (a) magnitude of force of friction, (b) length of segments s and (c) number and shape of zigzags, for which Fc = F'c, Fc > 0, F'c > 0, d = d', d > 0 and d' > 0." DO YOU HAVE ANY OBJECTIONS AGAINST THIS LAST CLAIM? THE LATTER HAS BEEN EXPERIMENTALLY PROVED ALREADY MANY TIMES.   
Looking forward to your answer.
Regards,
George

[sm0ky2]

"RD" checks out.
PM, I don't see that but.....




Even if we simplify the situation
Take the zig-zags, or a washboard whatever
And a 'rake', that brushes across it in only one direction
The force of friction will have a vector
And as such, will impart motive force on the system as a whole.


Like the impact boat on crack


Need a real world example? Jerk the shake-weight only in one direction.

[George1]

Hi smOky2,
Thanks a lot for your reply. And thank you for your good words -- all members of our team (including myself) are really pathological enthusiasts! 
1) What is PM?
2) Actually I could not understand your arguments. Please give me some time to consider them carefully. (It seems to me that we are talking about different things.)
3) Meanwhile would you be so polite to consider carefully our post from May 16, 2019, 09:35:12 AM and especially the following sentence: "It is evident that we can always choose a suitable combination of (a) magnitude of force of friction, (b) length of segments s and (c) number and shape of zigzags, for which Fc = F'c, Fc > 0, F'c > 0, d = d', d > 0 and d' > 0." Do you have any objections against this last claim? The latter has been experimentally proved many times.     
Looking forward to your answer.
Regards,
George

[George1]

The principle of operation of a reactionless drive seems to be already a reality.
Please consider carefully again our post from May 16, 2019, 09:35:12 AM and especially the following sentence: "It is evident that we can always choose a suitable combination of (a) magnitude of force of friction, (b) length of segments s and (c) number and shape of zigzags, for which Fc = F'c, Fc > 0, F'c > 0, d = d', d > 0 and d' > 0." Do you have any objections against this last claim? The latter has been experimentally proved many times.     
Looking forward to your answer.
Regards,
George

[George1]

Any opinion related to our yesterday post?