Getting energy from asymmetry of the magnetic field experiment

[ayeaye]

Sm0ky2,

This is the way force is defined, and it is indeed such power. That when we move by 1 meter, with the force 1 Newton in 1 second, then the acceleration is 1 m / s ^ 2. There are thus two ways to measure energy, by meters moved with a certain force, or by how much the speed increased. Because these two ways are equivalent, one can only measure distance and force to calculate energy, and doesn't have to measure time or speed. Because by definition it is known, how much the speed of the object increases, when moving that distance, with that force.

PS I asked for replication of my experiment. My experiment is repeatable by very simple means, almost anyone can do that, all information for repeating the experiment is provided. And my experiment includes measurements that show everything that happens there. In these conditions a hoaxter doesn't ask for replication. Please see the difference.

[sm0ky2]

The  m / s ^ 2  is an acceleration, not time. Newton is a force necessary to accelerate 1 kg at  1 m / s ^ 2 . kg is a unit of mass, but in the Earth's gravity, a force to 1 kg is approximately 9.8 N, because of the Earth's gravity acceleration  9.8 m / s ^2 , 1 N is thus  1 kg / 9.8 .

You're halfway there. (still keep dropping your per sec per sec)
You don't have a 1KG weight on a 9.8 meter long scale
What the scale does is provide an equivalent force via the spring.
By a division of 10 at increments of the scale.
If calibrate the scale as in the video
Then hang a 0.1kg weight it should hit close to 1N
And this would give you an accurate measurement at that location.
(you can observe gravitational variance with your scale)

Lain on it's side, you are not measuring an acceleration force.
You are measuring a timeless force at a location within the magnetic  field.


If you plot this over distance and time you can derive the energy involved.


What is the difference between this force and say have the spring measure
a rubber band?
A measurement at an instant is just that. A measurement over time or at
time-based increments, gives you acceleration.


How much "energy" does it take to levitate a magnet above another magnet?
if it's not moving, there's no energy at all. just a force countering the weight.
I can only say the same thing in so many ways....
and I do so hoping at least one will hit the target.
Like the reason we don't get Newton's heavier every second we sit on the ground.
Because we are not accelerating. There is a static force on us. A timeless quantity
we call weight. This is what you are measuring.

[ayeaye]

Lain on it's side, you are not measuring an acceleration force.

Yes i do, all that is necessary to measure energy, is force and distance. Because it is known how much it accelerates, by moving that distance with that force.

Ok, i can show you.  force = mass * acceleration   =>  acceleration = force / mass , such as mass of the moving magnet.  acceleration = distance / time ^ 2  =>  time = sqrt (distance / acceleration) , speed = acceleration * time , thus when we know force, distance and mass, we can calculate the increase of speed.

[sm0ky2]

Divide it, take the root, take the derivation (time?)
Integrate it back again.
Time does not go away. Because it was the foundation.


Sure you can calculate a force over distance.
But without time you have no energy quotient.
Without time there is no Velocity, no Acceleration.
Moving something a distance is not an energy.
It is how long it takes you to move it.
Period.


1kg*meter for instance
you move yours in one second


I'll move mine in half a second


Which one is more energy?

[ayeaye]

1kg*meter for instance
you move yours in one second


I'll move mine in half a second


Which one is more energy?

These are the same energy. High school physics.