Working Attraction Magnet Motor on Youtube!?

[Omnibus]

Imparting of a given known amount of energy which later is redistributed into other energies ultimately lost by the ball makes it different from SMOT whereby the initially imparted energy is less (not equal, as in your case) to the various energies lost by the ball at the end.

[shruggedatlas]

Imparting of a given known amount of energy which later is redistributed into other energies ultimately lost by the ball makes it different from SMOT whereby the initially imparted energy is less (not equal, as in your case) to the various energies lost by the ball at the end.

I take from all this that there is no experiment where we can clearly measure the amount of energy created from nothing?  And by "clearly," I mean something tangible, like a change in ball velocity.

[Omnibus]

Imparting of a given known amount of energy which later is redistributed into other energies ultimately lost by the ball makes it different from SMOT whereby the initially imparted energy is less (not equal, as in your case) to the various energies lost by the ball at the end.

I take from all this that there is no experiment where we can clearly measure the amount of energy created from nothing?  And by "clearly," I mean something tangible, like a change in ball velocity.

Like I said, we can measure directly the excess energy produced in the experiment we're discussing. We know what the mass m of the ball is, we know how much g is and also we can measure quite accurately the distance h2. That's, of course, part of the excess energy. The kinetic energy at C can also be determined by measuring the velocity of the ball at C and then apply the known formula. There's also rotational energy at C which we can also measure etc. If we wish, we can measure the magnetic potential energy at B and so on. These measurements are unnecessary for the purposes of this discussion, however, because the crucial question is whether or not there is excess energy and not how much that excess energy is. The answer, as we know already, is in the positive. This whole thing I'm repeating for the umptieth time already.

[shruggedatlas]

Imparting of a given known amount of energy which later is redistributed into other energies ultimately lost by the ball makes it different from SMOT whereby the initially imparted energy is less (not equal, as in your case) to the various energies lost by the ball at the end.

I take from all this that there is no experiment where we can clearly measure the amount of energy created from nothing?  And by "clearly," I mean something tangible, like a change in ball velocity.

Like I said, we can measure directly the excess energy produced in the experiment we're discussing. We know what the mass m of the ball is, we know how much g is and also we can measure quite accurately the distance h2. That's, of course, part of the excess energy. The kinetic energy at C can also be determined by measuring the velocity of the ball at C and then apply the known formula. There's also rotational energy at C which we can also measure etc. If we wish, we can measure the magnetic potential energy at B and so on. These measurements are unnecessary for the purposes of this discussion, however, because the crucial question is whether or not there is excess energy and not how much that excess energy is. The answer, as we know already, is in the positive. This whole thing I'm repeating for the umptieth time already.

Fine, let's take your A-B-C-A scenario.  Trial 1 - run it as you describe.  We will take an accurate measurement of the balls velocity as it hits A.

Trial 2.  We remove the SMOT ramp, but preciseley mark point B in the air somehow.  We lift the ball from point A and place it at point B and then simply drop it.  We similarly measure the ball's velocity as it hits A.

For there to be excess energy, as you say, is it not true that the ball should be travelling faster during Trial 1, compared with Trial 2?

[Omnibus]

Imparting of a given known amount of energy which later is redistributed into other energies ultimately lost by the ball makes it different from SMOT whereby the initially imparted energy is less (not equal, as in your case) to the various energies lost by the ball at the end.

I take from all this that there is no experiment where we can clearly measure the amount of energy created from nothing?  And by "clearly," I mean something tangible, like a change in ball velocity.

Like I said, we can measure directly the excess energy produced in the experiment we're discussing. We know what the mass m of the ball is, we know how much g is and also we can measure quite accurately the distance h2. That's, of course, part of the excess energy. The kinetic energy at C can also be determined by measuring the velocity of the ball at C and then apply the known formula. There's also rotational energy at C which we can also measure etc. If we wish, we can measure the magnetic potential energy at B and so on. These measurements are unnecessary for the purposes of this discussion, however, because the crucial question is whether or not there is excess energy and not how much that excess energy is. The answer, as we know already, is in the positive. This whole thing I'm repeating for the umptieth time already.

Fine, let's take your A-B-C-A scenario.  Trial 1 - run it as you describe.  We will take an accurate measurement of the balls velocity as it hits A.

Trial 2.  We remove the SMOT ramp, but preciseley mark point B in the air somehow.  We lift the ball from point A and place it at point B and then simply drop it.  We similarly measure the ball's velocity as it hits A.

For there to be excess energy, as you say, is it not true that the ball should be travelling faster during Trial 1, compared with Trial 2?

Jean Naudin does exactly that. And it's indeed more (traveling faster) in Trial 1 than in Trial 2. Still that experiment (Naudin's experiment) is enough to prove that there is excess energy in SMOT. Conclusive proof, however, as I already said, dealing in one stroke with all the ridiculous little objections to Naudin's experiment is provided when the experiment is carried out along the closed A-B-C-A loop.