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Overunity Machines Forum



Faraday's Paradox experiment

Started by scotty1, September 27, 2008, 07:20:24 PM

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Rosemary Ainslie

Quote from: KWP on September 20, 2010, 02:39:08 PM

Since the Earth is both rotating and revolving around the sun, and simultaneously the solar system is moving towards the constellation Leo, we have to assume that all charges have magnetic fields.
Not sure how you get to this conclusion KWP.  I thought Leo is a satellite constellation around the Milky Way.  Are we moving towards Leo and away from our own galaxy?   

Quote from: KWP on September 20, 2010, 02:39:08 PMImagine if you will, a sole electron traveling through space-- it will have a magnetic field.  That field, would look like concentric rings (like when you drop a pebble in a pond), but since the electron is moving, and it takes time for the ripples to expand out, the ripples would follow more a cone-shape that follows behind the electron (much like the wake of a boat traveling in the water, but in 3 dimensions).

Now, in your mind, create another electron that is traveling a parallel course-- say separated by 1 millimeter from the first electron.  The second electron also has magnetic-wake following behind it.  But, in this case, the magnetic ripples will have a tendency to combine together-- so the cone-shape is a sequence of ever-larger ellipses rather than a sequence of ever-larger circles.

Now, in this same thought experiment, add even more electrons-- maybe thousands of them-- all traveling in the same direction, and all very close to each other.  These will produce an even more powerful magnetic-wake behind the group of electrons.

Now, imagine a string of electrons traveling in the same direction-- while each electron will have a cone-shaped "magnetic wake", to an outside observer it appears as though there are only concentric rings around the line of electrons.  This is what we might measure as a "magnetic field" around a wire.  If we form that wire into a coil, the individual magnetic wakes constructively combine in a manner that we see as the magnetic field, complete with "lines of force" [LOF]-- a pattern that can be shown with ferro-fluid or iron filings.
This is very well explained as a pattern - but I have a problem with your fundamental postulate.  You picture the electrons travelling parallel to each other strung up as a 'washing line' - so to speak.  I'm not sure that this is representative of 'current flow' or electric charge movement which is seen more as the one electron travelling in the wake of the second.  That's first assuming that current flow is seen as electron flow in the first instance.  If, as you recommend we then join the ends of that washing line - then where would the 'path' continue? It could, perhaps orbit - like a children on a merry-go-round - but that wouldn't transfer that orbit through space.  Rather it would be orbiting around a fixed axis in a fixed position in space.

Then.  You give us a picture of ripples expanding away from the source - being the electron.  But that 'ripple' must surely be another separate medium to the electron.  Else the electron itself would be manifesting and 'putting out' an infinite amount of magnetism in the form of those ripples.  And the evidence is that magnetic fields have defined boundaries.

KWP - this is such an interesting exercise - the art of picturing these movements as patterns.  But I think it requires a logical sequence as well as those symmetries that you describe so well.  My own take - in terms of your analogy - would be that the ripples are extant - in the form of material properties to magnetic fields.  In other words it comprises particles that form the field.  And these, in turn, move the electron.  It's effectively the flip side to your own picture.  That way - the lines of force become the property of a more basic and fundamental field that is somehow hidden from view.  And what we then see is the electron interacting with these fields.  Since we know that electrons orbit an atom's nucleus - which orbit is consistent with those spatial demarcations described as energy levels - then, perhaps those energy levels comprise hidden magnetic fields.  If they're orbiting - as proposed - then we would NEVER be able to find them through any instruments designed to measure voltage imbalance any more than we could detect a voltage imbalance if our Earth's magnetic fields simply orbited the equator - so to speak. 

What's being proposed here is that magnetic fields may - themselves - be made up of particles.  And maybe this is the source of those aether energies. 

Regards,
Rosemary
edited

Rosemary Ainslie

Guys - to get back on topic.  This point is my whole point.  I cannot see how we can claim that the extruded fields from a permanent magnet can, in any way, be considered to be interacting with the material of the magnet if we cannot also measure some resistance in that interaction.  There appears to be none.  No Ohmage at all.  But I do measure an ac - and NOT dc voltage or potential difference.  Resistance is a property of magnetism - else our standard multimeters would not be able to measure it.  Therefore I would propose that resistance relates to the electromagnetic potential condition of the magnetic fields within the material being measured.  And if there is no evidence of resistance then I cannot see that the fields are the result of an electromagnetic interaction within the material of the manget itself.  They appear to orbit - independently of that interaction.  A force apart from the electric field. 

In which case they would be able to assemble or disassemble against other proximate fields - without the magnets themselves being materially altered by that interaction.  Only the lines of force may be extended depending on whether they conjoin with other magnets or other magnetic fields.  And when those conjunctions are then broken - then I suspect that the flux returns to its source - in tact.   And I think this is the question posed by the faraday paradox.  Do the magnetic fields result from a continued and simultaneous  electric interaction to provide the electromagnetic interaction?  Or do magnetic fields in permanent magnets simply manifest independently of a continued electromagnetic interaction?  I would plumb for the latter as evidenced in this entire lack of any measurable Ohmage in permanent magnets.  Which also means that resistance is then a measure of that continued electromagnetic interaction within the body of any material which also then measures its potential to interact with magnetic fields

Regards
Rosemary
edited

lumen

Well I hope this could be a better test for field rotation, even though some problems exist with the measurement device or what could be used.

Suppose you have a magnet and only two bars connected at a pivot in the center above the surface. The thin wire along the outside is for now, a measuring device.
As one of the bars is rotated, a current would appear as the field lines were cut because you would be forcing the field lines to cross one or the other bars to escape the ever narrowing space between them.

Now with a third bar, as the outer most bar is rotated and the other two remain stationary, the field lines will again be broken and a current generated. If the field is floating free in space, then as the outer bar moves some field lines will cross the center bar and an equal amount will cross the other bar also.

Some where at a point of equal spacing, there should show a current generated between all three of the bars, even though you are only moving one of them.





Rosemary Ainslie

Lumen.  That's really interesting.  I see current flow enabled by the thin connecting lines that you state is for measuring.  If the material is paramagnetic/diamagnetic/ferromagnetic - whatever - the flux from the magnet will either bend around the tripod or establish a sympathetic continual path through the tripod. 

Material has never been found to be the basic structure of flux.  According to our classicists nothing - including light - exceeds light speed.  If flux is actually material that is structured along faraday's lines of force - and if these particles orbit at speeds that exceed light speed - then they would always be invisible - or out of reach - of light itself.  This means that the adjustment of the lines of force, through space - would precede and proceed the movement of the rotating bar/bars.  Therefore there would be no 'threat' to the stability of those lines of force.  A discerned proximity of the moving tripod bars would be preceded and proceeded by a spatial adjustment of the lines of force - and so on - throughout an entire rotation.

Maybe? 

Regards,
edited
Rosemary

gravityblock

Rosemary,

Have you seen this video with an inverted field, http://www.andrijar.com/homavi/motor.wmv  Everything is as expected until the 4 minute mark in the video.

In the above video, a child can see how the inverted field, indicated by the white piece of paper, will rotate with the magnet.  The inverted field will always follow the white piece of paper.  Now, if we are in the rotating frame and rotated with the magnet, then the inverted field will be stationary relative to our position.

In conclusion, the field rotates in a stationary reference frame while the field remains stationary in a rotating reference frame.  It doesn't matter if the magnet rotates or not.  As long as there is relative motion between the stationary conductor and the rotating conductor, then both conductors will be cut by the fields and will be induced with equal but opposite EMF so current can flow.

1)  Stationary Conductor will be cut by a rotating field.
2)  Rotating Conductor will be cut by a stationary field.

One of the conductors will be cut by the applied field, while the other conductor will be cut by the induced field.

GB
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