Something like this... but no sure!

Tonight I explained something, and it reminded me of the hall effect


Why does a bifilar coil when pulsed with ac regular show a magnetic field, in the same direction, at different frequencies?

On what physics, is tesla's claim in his patent 512340 :
I have found that in every coil there exists a certain relation between its self-induction and capacity that permits a current of given frequency and potential to pass through it with no other opposition than that of ohmic resistance, or, in other words, as though it possessed no self-induction

I think it has to do with how the fields act.

normally(single wire coil)  the magnetic field wraps against the magnetic field of the next winding, counteracting it. bad thing. The voltage differnce between the windings is minimal, so the dielectric field is weak, giving a very high resonant frequency.

but with the bifilar coil, due to the much greater voltage difference between the windings, the dielectric field is much stronger between the windings. when it is strong enough (voltage dependent i think) the magnetic field is blocked, it cant flow in between the windings(only in 1 direction, but not the opposite) , because the dielectric field is there. It blocks the magnetic field. ( Hall effect, but aplied to the weaker magnetic field due to the stronger dielectric field)

the magnetic field will keep flowing over the windings, and over the dielectric fields (at 90 degrees of the dielectric field)

Quote from: evostars on May 18, 2017, 07:39:44 PM
Tonight I explained something, and it reminded me of the hall effect
(https://nl.wikipedia.org/wiki/Hall-effect#/media/File:Hall_effect.png)

Why does a bifilar coil when pulsed with ac regular show a magnetic field, in the same direction, at different frequencies?

On what physics, is tesla's claim in his patent 512340 :
I have found that in every coil there exists a certain relation between its self-induction and capacity that permits a current of given frequency and potential to pass through it with no other opposition than that of ohmic resistance, or, in other words, as though it possessed no self-induction

I think it has to do with how the fields act.

normally(single wire coil)  the magnetic field wraps against the magnetic field of the next winding, counteracting it. bad thing. The voltage differnce between the windings is minimal, so the dielectric field is weak, giving a very high resonant frequency.

but with the bifilar coil, due to the much greater voltage difference between the windings, the dielectric field is much stronger between the windings. when it is strong enough (voltage dependent i think) the magnetic field is blocked, it cant flow in between the windings(only in 1 direction, but not the opposite) , because the dielectric field is there. It blocks the magnetic field. ( Hall effect, but aplied to the weaker magnetic field due to the stronger dielectric field)

the magnetic field will keep flowing over the windings, and over the dielectric fields (at 90 degrees of the dielectric field)

Sorry  hit the post by accident if you see this before i edited it. now...

Id like to think that there is a different activity happening in the bifi, and I think it could be something we hopefully figure out.

Nice idea on the possibilities.  Sorta the same as I described as the possibility that at resonance the 2 coils may be ignoring each others inductance thus the possibility that the working inductance is only the value of each windings inductance.  Im saying possibly as some will say its not and we need to prove what we think or its just same ole same ole.

Mags

I found out that by pulsing a bifilar coil with back emf, I can make it resonate with a third field, that doesnt have magnetic properties.
https://youtu.be/X0axISEVNVk

In this experiment i am using a bifilar pancake coil....is this like you say...?

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CovWTHPni30