MH's ideal coil and voltage question

[poynt99]

  I'll have a guess, something like open circuit a time O to 1.666 ohms at time 3.
       John.

Good. In what form does the impedance make the transition from 0 to 1.67 Ohms over that 3 second time period?

[poynt99]

Wouldn't a charged ideal capacitor of infinite capacitance, be indistinguishable from an ideal voltage source ?

Agreed.

[tinman]

Wouldn't a charged ideal capacitor of infinite capacitance, be indistinguishable from an ideal voltage source ?

And what would happen if this charged ideal capacitor of infinite capacitance,has an inverted voltage placed across it,from an ideal voltage source?.


Brad

[SeaMonkey]

And what would happen if this charged ideal capacitor of infinite capacitance,has an inverted voltage placed across it,from an ideal voltage source?.

Lovely question!

In the World of Theoretical Fantasy who is able to tell?

Would there be lots and lots of sparks?

A Black Hole?

There may be several "correct answers" to this riddle.

[Magluvin]

Yeah, the ideal cap with infinite capacitance is a neat 'ideal' idea. But lets say it is at 0v. It would never charge to any particular voltage above 0v. It would be an infinite ideal load. It would be far from falling under a definition of a capacitor in any form.

So if we could buy one, it would need to be precharged.    

But I understand the comparison to an ideal voltage source. I also understand that if we have an ideal voltage source, we would be just considering it it at its face value of being a source and as to where its power comes from doesnt matter. That would be another hangup for me being the screw ball that I am. Its all sorta fun to think about for a bit, but I dont believe spending great amounts of time on the subject is necessary to 'advancing' any projects here. I just find it to be a huge distraction. How many pages on that alone here? Tires me to think about it any longer.

Im just perplexed as to any need to think of things 'ideally' and that it would help me with any of my projects. For me it doesnt help me understand inductance any better. It doesnt help me understand caps any better. Im just not getting it.   Just like I dont get if we have 2 ideal caps, one at 10v and 1 at 0v, that the result of going cap to cap would be 7.07v per cap, ideally. I still stand by what I believe on that, until someone can physically show me that the results would be such. On paper only, and according to 'laws' just doesnt get me there in the least. And none of what has been posted here has shown me any different.

When I say we just lost 'pressure', basically that is what we lost.  50% doing the ideal cap to cap.  I find that the 50% loss due to resistance(of any value above 0ohms) is a prick in the science as to conservation of energy and resistance was given as the culprit by way of heat loss. Especially when it is 'claimed here' that 1uohm is 'seamless' to being ideal, by Mh and backed up by Poynt, but also claiming that .000001 picoohm is still responsible for the 50% loss from cap to cap. Just doesnt work for me.... Like why wouldnt there be some ledge of very very slight resistance that would give us say 6v in each cap? Or 5.1v??? Or 7.06v??

Ideal. No resistance. No heat.  So 100% of the 'ideal energy' used to charge the cap to 10v was 'converted' into 'pressure' of opposite charge in the caps plates measured in voltage.  So if we decide to diversify or better yet divide that 10v pressure of that cap between 2 caps of the same value, then we have lost pressure, as Ive said, stupidly. Ideally or not.

Mags