Re-Inventing The Wheel-Part1-Clemente_Figuera-THE INFINITE ENERGY MACHINE

[RandyFL]

Hanon,
Thank you for your reply... I have some personal business to tend to before I start testing again... I have seen that particular diagram before - and it will take a couple of days to wrap my head around the diagram and the simulation circuit. I have the 555 circuit too and as I have stated before - that I just got my circuit to handle 12 volts at 8 amps before having surgery done.

All the best

PS Looking at the diagram in the am...
1. My 555 circuit can deliver up to 8 amps ( BDX53 ) at 12 volts
2. I have a wall wart from my sprinkler system that uses AC ( input 120 AC VAC 60 Hz. 25 watt - output 25.5 VAC 650 mA )
the questions that quickly arise are...
A. My wall wart has three wires ( two black wires and a green ( ground - I assume ) is this green wire going to be not connected ?
B. Am I bring the AC output to 12 Volts AC ?
C. Why are you bringing AC into picture? why not just bring two 555 circuits... ( just thinking out loud )... and start the other in the other side...
D. The two arrows on the left are they correctly going both towards the right or towards each other?

[Doug1]

Hannon

Finally I devised a very simple system to generate both signals in opposition. It was just as simple as building a composed magnetic field: adding a DC magnetic field + AC  in one inducer, and the same DC field - The same AC in the second inducer. To add or substract the AC field is just to connect it in the same sense or in the contrary . When I designed this system I had already stopped doing test, so I have not test it yet.

That is pretty much how a magnetic amplifier works.It can add to or subtract from, to control the current to run other devices.. Sometimes they use saturation but there is always a trade off of problems depending on the method. I was shocked to see an entire new rehash going on. Same communication problems ,potato potado.
  One difference in a mag amp is they use dc to control ac or rectified feed back to add to bi stable or not depends on what you want it to do. Im not saying the figurea device is a mag amp just that there are some similarities. NS Im not sure what meant by the magnet is permanent ,fluctuating dc is far from steady like a permanent magnet. Maybe you were thinking about it in terms of not flipping poles. In that case the Y circuit would see a flux change from the outsides in strength alternating left to right and back again. The motion of the field as seen by the Y is independent of what caused it to change. They are two different things. It would not require cooling in the way your thinking certainly not anymore then a motor or transformer heats up. If you start looking at volt/turns per cm and the amount of flux your core can handle plus the size of conductor required for the expected heat in the windings you will get a better sense of scale. 
  You all have fun ,I have to go change the clutch on my truck. Nothing but bloody knuckles and creative cursing today.  I like to do my own work because it always ends up that way. I end up fixing what I payed to have fixed so I may as well skip the boob and just do it myself the first time.

[NRamaswami]

Doug1

Thanks for the post and hope you would make your truck run all by yourself.

My question was very simple. I create powerful and large magnetic fields that are effective for several feet.

But when we subject permanent magnets to these fields they violently oscillate and do not like going near the electromagnet. However in the case of DC Electromagnet this may not happen for they are also permanent magnets except that they are more powerful or larger in size.

I know how to make a powerful permanent magnet using soft iron or alloys of soft iron. They may or may not be as powerful as a neodymium magnet but while neodymium is smaller in size these magnets can be made to any size and shape we want.

Let us assume that there is a 1 mm gap and we create a powerful magnetic field in the Primaries. The current is undulated DC as you told Alvaro.

Will a permanent magnet placed at 1 mm away from the DC electromagnet be demagnetized by the oscillaating core? Or will it remain a permanent magnet? Will the permanent magnet oscillate along with the undulated DC electromagnet and in such a case if coils are wound over the (assumed) oscillating permanent magnet generate electricity?  Was this why Figuera went to great lengths to put up all this complicated arrangement of commutator, resistor, circuits and multiple cores etc..

My understanding of the situation was that when a permanent magnet oscillates it must produce voltage. It did not for I was using AC. Whether I use AC or FW diode bridge created pulsating DC or full positive sign wave unidirectional current, the magnet will be demagnetized and core will also be demagnetized although it will retain a very small residual magnetizm.

Now could this be the reason how Figuera was able to get a large output because he made a permanent magnet to oscillate and create rotating magnetic fields instead of rotating the permanent magnet as in a dynamo? Will not this induced current convert the permanent magnet to become an Electromagnet and lose its magnetism or increase its magnetism..

I assume that there is a gap as stated by Bajac and I assume that the core is a straight core except for this 1 mm distance and 1 mm gap.

I normally do not assume things just do things and observe and learn. Here I do not understand what is undulated DC, what is its behavior and whether it will demagnetize a permanent magnet exposed to its wave at a very close distance without touching it,  with it make it oscillate and will it create a time varying magnetic field due to the oscillation created in the permanent magnet. If the poles do not change and if they remain NS-NS-NS only will this enable the middle permanent magnet to generate output.

But with all that If Undulated DC will not demagnetize I believe that the airgap is not needed and it will be wasteful and permanent magnet can be placed NS-NS-NS..

Regarding your comment also I'm very doubtful. Figuera is supposed to have created 550 volts. That is almost 37 amps in coils wound around the permanent magnets ( assumed) in the central. A lot of heat is bound to happen.

Can you please explain this possibility?

From the beginning I'm unable to understand why all this complexity is needed. As a Lawyer I learn principles and apply that principles to different facts of different situations. This is how I'm trained. So looking at the principle, if you need to create a regular circular rotary strong and weak magnetic fields in N and S magnets the simplest way is to use a coil connected in serail and wound around the cores. Agreed it was to avoid Lenz law but I have learnt to avoid Lenz law totally in AC electromagnets. I have not disclosed it and would like to file a patent for it.

As far as I know this is all totally new. Please advise your insight on the undulated DC current either enhancing the permanent magnet or demagnetizing the permanent magnet. Does the air gap required in order not to be demagnetized?

I have looked at all the various double wave signals. They all have one thing in common. That is simple. 180' opposition always. That simply means that the NS-NS-NS pattern was the one used and natures path was followed.

Please oblige. I request other learned friends to share the insight as well.

[core]

Core,


It is exactly as Madmack states. The brush is always in connection with two contacts, therefore the signal is continuous without big sparks. It is a system "make before break" . The patent describes this feature clearly:

I respectfully disagree, for starters I know how hard it can be to translate a language. Translation is easier when your face to face with someone because you can use there body language and face expression to better understand the context of there words. Below I translated page 11 of the Buforn patent starting from the last paragraph into page 12. This is from his first patent.

I have made every effort to find the right English word that matches the Spanish meaning.

Using to your advantage a magnetic field composed of a series of electro-magnets
N and S, a resistance and isolated contacts on a circumference in which the contacts
are linked with half of the ends of the resistance and the other contacts
united directly with the resistance.

Added to this a swivel brush always in communication with more then one contact.
Now one of the ends of the resistance is united with the electro-magnet N and the other
is with the S, as a result when the brush is communicating with the first contact
the current all goes to electro N at the time the S are empty, due to the fact that the
current that has to go to them has to advance all the resistance, 
when the brush is in communication with the second, the current no longer all goes to the
N due to having to pass through parts of the resistance and some current starts to pass
to S due to the fact that it has to pass less resistance then before and like that
the circuit closes successively.

Resulting in the current slowing or increasing as it traverses more or less resistance
and therefor varying constantly and that function we make continuous and orderly,
and here what we achieved is the proposed order.

Now, I understand it says "Added to this a swivel brush always in communication with more then one contact." however we see from the diagrams that half of the contacts are jumped together. As an example Contact 1, located between 12 and 1 o'clock is tied to Contact 8. When the brush is touching Contact 1 it is also in communication with Contact 8. When on Contact 2 it also communicates with Contact . Here we can see that the brush is always in communication with two contact points.

If we say that the brush covers Contact 1 and Contact 2 then the brush is in communication with four points, that would be Contacts 1 and Contact 8 and Contact 2 and Contact 7.

Also Buforn states:

"...as a result when the brush is communicating with the first contact"

that means one contact. He did not say "....as a result when the brush is communicating with the first set of contacts" or ".......as a result when the brush is communicating with the first and second contact" or ".......as a result when the brush is communicating with the first and sixteenth contact" he specifically states one contact.

Then to complete the above sentence he continues and says

".........the current all goes to electro N at the time the S are empty, due to the fact that the
current that has to go to them has to advance all the resistance"

Note the use of the word "ALL" in the patent he uses the Spanish word "toda" that means "ALL" if the brush is contacting two contacts simultaneously then the S electromagnet goes through ALL the resistance as the brush will always skip one because it covers two contact points.

Finally, towards the end of the paragraph he says:

"........the fact that it has to pass less resistance then before and like that the circuit closes successively.

Again if the brush covers two contacts, effectively putting four points in communication, then the circuit is "always" closed and never opens. But again he states "the circuit closes successively" That line would make no sense if the circuit was always closed.


Doesn't matter to me what direction people take, just wanted to provide another translation that sheds a different opinion on the operation of there dis-charger.


-Core

[core]

BTW... In the dis_charger you will only have mad sparks when the brush is in communication with with the points that tie directly to the coil bypassing the resistance. When it hits the resistance amperage is reduced effectively reducing the sparking. Since we dont know the values of resistance and this resistance could be a solenoid with taps its hard to tell what type, if any, sparks he had.

-Core