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Overunity Machines Forum



Double Pendulum Power

Started by nybtorque, June 10, 2013, 01:03:21 PM

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nybtorque

Quote from: telecom on October 31, 2013, 12:51:46 PM
Hi NT,
I'm not sure this statement is correct:
The interdependencies between the two pendulums continuously exchanging
kinetic energy as they oscillate is complex. The two pendulums transfer
momentum between themselves in both directions as described by the Euler
Lagrange equations earlier. If we try to force the outer pendulum into a
certain speed or movement, we will no doubt disturb the inner pendulum as
it transfer momentum back. Constant rotation of the outer pendulum will
simply not do.
The way I see it, the outer pendulum simply doesn't "see" the inner pendulum.
It keeps rotating in equilibrium (less friction) according to the first law of motion:
2. Rotational equilibrium:When body is not rotating at all or its rotating at constant rate it is said to be in rotational equilibrium. This is Newton's first law of motion,equilibrium.

To activate the inner pendulum with use the reaction of the axis of the outer pendulum by allowing the axis to move freely in one direction, being attached to the pivot of the inner pendulum.
What do u think?
Regards!


I do think the statement is correct. Because the centrifugal force of the outer pendulum acts on the inner pendulum so that i in turn accelerates, and this creates a force acting back on the outer pendulum mass which either accelerates decelerates it.... and on... This is the reason that the solution of Euler Lagrange equation is quite complex.




telecom

Quote from: nybtorque on October 31, 2013, 01:01:27 PM

I do think the statement is correct. Because the centrifugal force of the outer pendulum acts on the inner pendulum so that i in turn accelerates, and this creates a force acting back on the outer pendulum mass which either accelerates decelerates it.... and on... This is the reason that the solution of Euler Lagrange equation is quite complex.
Lets remove the motor 1 on fig. 5 and place two motors coaxial to the weights 2 and 3.
What is the mechanism of slowing down the above motors with weights attached?
The reaction of the centrifugal forces is only able to push back on the bearings holding the shafts of the motors, IMHO.

nybtorque

Quote from: telecom on October 31, 2013, 01:23:35 PM
Lets remove the motor 1 on fig. 5 and place two motors coaxial to the weights 2 and 3.
What is the mechanism of slowing down the above motors with weights attached?
The reaction of the centrifugal forces is only able to push back on the bearings holding the shafts of the motors, IMHO.


Yes, and by pushing back on the bearings it either accelerates or decelerate the pendulum mass depending on the angle. This is actually kind of interesting as a way to extract power because it would generate power spikes in the driving motor. I don't know how to make it useful but it would be interesting to analyze.

telecom

Quote from: nybtorque on October 31, 2013, 02:12:18 PM

Yes, and by pushing back on the bearings it either accelerates or decelerate the pendulum mass depending on the angle. This is actually kind of interesting as a way to extract power because it would generate power spikes in the driving motor. I don't know how to make it useful but it would be interesting to analyze.
What is the mechanism of action?

nybtorque

Quote from: LibreEnergia on October 31, 2013, 04:34:50 AM
That is all you need to realise.

You cannot use free fall of gravity to replace the energy lost. For that to occur the system would need to have gravitational potential to allow it to fall, but the maximum of potential reduces at exactly the same rate as the energy is dissipated either by a generator or by friction.

Build a simulation that has a damping force proportional to the angular velocity at the pivots and you'll see that.


I have another analogy for you. Think of it as an high-frequency, high voltage(acceleration), low current(velocity) circuit 90 degrees out of phase. If you put a resistive load on it you will not get much heat because P=i^2 * R. It's the same with kinetic energy turning into friction heat.


However if you put an inductive load it should be different because P=L * i * i', where i' = di/dt, is and analogy to acceleration. This is why I expect high-voltage AC-output from a generator with an oscillating input torque.