Partnered Output Coils - Free Energy

[tinman]

Having trawled through most of Brad's experiments I am of the opinion that the inner secondary has a self resonance at around 350KHz.  It seems clear to me that the inner coil being surrounded by conductive particles within an insulating binder will have a high value of self capacitance, so some self resonance is to be expected.  The effect of shunt capacitance across a coil is to reflect into the magnetic circuit some negative reluctance.  The value of that negative reluctance is given by (w^2)*(N^2)*C where N is the number of turns and w is the angular frequency (omega).  So the reluctance of the inner core is reduced by that value, hence this explains why it draws more flux.  Also the w^2 frequency dependence of that reduced reluctance explains why Brad gets different results at different frequencies.  At resonance the negative value equates to the positive value hence the reluctance becomes zero, so the inner core steals all the flux, and this happens in Brad's experiments.

Experiments using different capacitor values across that inner coil should validate this simple explanation.  Also one could do experiments using two standard toroidal cores stacked one on top of the other, having a secondary wound on one core and a primary wound over both cores.  Applying capacitors to the secondary should replicate Brad's work and prove this simple explanation.

Smudge

P.S.  I have long held the view that being able to effectively reduce the reluctance of a core by adding capacitance to a coil is something that could be exploited in OU work.

P.P.S.  See my old paper "Analyzing Transformers in the Magnetic Domain"

Some great info there Smudge.
Now when the reluctance is reduced,the magnetic domains of said core material would align much quicker-would they not. What i mean is that less magnetic field strength would be needed to align the domains,so as an area of the core that has low reluctance would see an increased magnetic flux due to the quicker domain alignment to that of the area of the core that has a higher reluctance that has an equal magnetic field strength.
Summery--Even though the magnetic field throughout the core may be of the same amplitude,the area of the core with a lower reluctance value would have the highest value of magnetic flux. If that area of low reluctance is a path that follows the inner coil winding's,then that inner coil will have a higher flux density,and thus result in a higher voltage amplitude across the coil within this flux path to that of a coil with the same turn ratio that is in the area of the core with a higher reluctance value.

[picowatt]

,no,where did you come up with that?. The two secondaries are 180* out of phase to that of the primary-as stated in my reply. The outer secondary always remains 180* out of phase to the outer primary. The inner secondaries phase shifts 180* to match the primaries at the higher end of the sweep.

Let me see if I have this correct.  At lower frequencies, the outer and inner secondaries are in phase with each other but are 180 out of phase with the primary?  Are all three windings wound in the same direction/dot convention?  I would think that the primary and both secondaries, if all wound the same, would be in phase at lower frequencies.

The inner sec. phase shift at HF seems reasonable. 

2:1 voltage ration(inner higher voltage amplitude),and in phase.

So, at lower frequencies, the inner secondary amplitude is twice that of the outer secondary and both secondaries are in phase with each other, correct?

OK,think there is a mix up here. I use my SG for all the test,and i use the term SG(signal generator),where as you are using the term FG(function generator)-->one in the same to me.

Yes, that was the problem.  So in all instances, your use of "SG" has been with regard to your FG?.

I can do that tonight after work.

Yes,it did.
You recommended a sweep up to 400KHz,and i went to 500KHz-->now i need to go to 800KHz+?
I went all the way to 2.3 MHz,which is where the inner secondary amplitude go's down to the mV range

You need to go as high as is required to see any peak or roll off in the outer secondary.  You seem to have defined the unloaded peak and rolloff for the inner secondary, you should be able to do the same for the outer secondary.

What did you see regarding the outer secondary amplitude and phase when you swept up to 2.3MHz?

My estimates were based on your scope shots with the secondaries loaded with 100R.  At some point you'll want to see what difference the 100R loads make to the peak/rolloff frequency.

Which i did until i wanted to watch the amplitude's of both the primary and outer secondary.


Scope 101 basics passed some time back.

I was only trying to be helpful.  Glad to see you've figured it out...

PW

[MileHigh]

Brad:

My attached pictures are not too wide, they are actually smallish images.  So perhaps something funny is happening with your browser.

Where do you keep coming up with this !air gap! thing?. There is no air gap between the inner and outer core-they are one. You do know that the core material was a pliable mix when i made the core,and that it dry hardened. The only gap between what you refer to the two cores,is the copper wire it self-there is no air gap.

I believe that I watched most or all of the clip where you made the HTT.  You molded the inner core.  Then I think you wrapped it in some kind of insulating tape.  Presumably the relative permeability of the tape is 1, so there is your "air."  Then you wound the inner secondary.  I can't remember if you wrapped the inner secondary with another layer of tape before you molded the outer secondary around it.  The inner tape is "air" and even the lacquer covering over the wire is "air" when it comes to discussing the permeability and the "air gap" between the inner secondary and the two cores.  Am I correct here or not?  Don't leave this question hanging please.

You didn't state if my answer to your question was correct or not.

Partzman:

I am sorry but I did not read the paper.  However you state:

In section 4 of this paper you will find experimental results showing the diffusion of flux over several milliseconds into an iron core. This of course follows the surface flux propagating at C due to the H fields both forward and reflected.

I am wondering if this is just due to the normal ramping up of the current when you energize an inductor with a voltage source.  It's perfectly normal for the magnetic domains to be flipping as the miliseconds pass.  We don't want to mix apples and oranges here.  I am not talking at all about the time delay for the current to ramp up when you energize an inductor.  I am saying that the magnetic field strength inside an inductor is instantaneously proportional to the current flowing through the inductor and all talk of vorticies, waves, etc with respect to the magnetic field as measured inside the inductor is bunk.

MileHigh

[MileHigh]

Brad:

Second-the only way to get a phase shift between the outer primary and inner secondary when doing open voltage tests,is to have a lagging magnetic filed/flux passing through that inner secondary. This clearly shows that both the magnetic field and flux do NOT propagate throughout the core simultaneously(reluctance). If they did,then there would be no phase shift. If it all happened simultaneously,then we would have no use for the reluctance value,which is basically the rate at which the magnetic domains can switch/align. When we start to exceed that reluctance value,then we start to get a phase lag,and until all the magnetic domains have switch/aligned to there full value to that of the supplied field strength,then the flux is still building until the magnetic domains have completely switched/aligned. This can and dose happen below(well below) the speed of light in some cases.

Sorry, but the above paragraph contains some strange and questionable statements that put me off.  For example, the magnetic field and the magnetic flux are essentially the same thing, therefore by definition they propagate throughout the core simultaneously.  The "reluctance value" is not the rate at which the magnetic domains can switch/align.  Reluctance has to do with looking at a magnetic circuit and identifying areas of high and low permeability to determine where and how much magnetic flux will flow through the entire magnetic circuit.  Like I just posted, the speed (time delay) for magnetic domains switching has nothing to do with any kind of "speed of propagation" of the magnetic field.  You cannot confuse inductance and it's associated time delays for the current to ramp up due to electrical inertia with the the speed-of-light or near speed-of-light (i.e. instantaneous) measurement of the strength and direction of the magnetic field anywhere in space due to the instantaneous current flow (and associated instantaneous core saturation level).

There are several times where there is missing or confusing information and confusing statements in your reporting of the frequency sweep measurements you made for PW.  PW is valiantly trying to clarify what you said.

MileHigh

[MileHigh]

Why is it important to use proper terminology and not talk mumbo jumbo talk about imaginary and false tech concepts like "swirling magnetic fields?"

The answer is that is what the con artists do also.  Con artists get away with talking about false concepts like they are real, when in fact they make no sense at all and can't be proven to exist in the real world.  Some of you may remember the strong debate between the late MarkE, TK and myself with Wayne of Hydroenergyrevolution.com.  Wayne talked nonsensical gibberish when it came to fluid dynamics when discussing his supposed free energy system based on buoyancy.  I am just a layperson when it comes to hydraulics and fluid dynamics but I could tell that his "explanations" with his mumbo jumbo talk where pure crap.

Please see the attached image to see what happened to Wayne and Hydroenergyrevolution.  The web site is gone, he is being investigated by the F.B.I. and don't be surprised if his lying ass ends up in jail.