Rotating Magnetic Field's and Inductors.

[poynt99]

Hi poynt99,

Well, your explanation makes sense, thank you. (For completeness I mention I also read verpies' additional reminder to this question in his Reply #195.)

Yes, I must thank verpies for always pointing out the details I purposely leave out of my posts. 

In my previous post I mentioned Newton's Third law, "For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction" and this law may not seem to be 100% correct in this case, once the reaction force from a strong magnet becomes higher than the action force coming from a weak magnet.  I am pleased...   

Gyula

Could you elaborate? I don't think I understand your point.

[gyulasun]

I mean the coil always made equal repel forces for both the ceramic and the Neo magnets I suppose,  (these were the action forces), yet the reaction forces from the ceramic and the Neo magnets were different to the same action force. 

[poynt99]

I mean the coil always made equal repel forces for both the ceramic and the Neo magnets I suppose,  (these were the action forces), yet the reaction forces from the ceramic and the Neo magnets were different to the same action force.

The coil always made an equal "field". The resulting "force" is partly dependent on the magnetization of the magnet.

Are you saying Newton's 3rd does not hold?

[MileHigh]

Brad:

Me:  "No waste heat losses were converted into electrical energy."

Me:  "your motor loses less input power to heat when the rotor spins.  We don't know exactly where or exactly why that is happening."

There is no contradiction here.  I will repeat to you what I have already said:  You can't look at two separate and independent cases and draw an inference from the differences between them.  In each case we don't know exactly where or exactly why the waste heat is being produced.  We have a good idea what his happening, but we don't know the exact specifics.

You can not say that Case B is more efficient than Case A therefore in Case B waste heat power is being converted into electrical power.  That does not make any sense.  In both cases we don't know the exact specifics.  So how can we possibly arrive at a conclusion about the differences between them?

I will repeat again:  If you change the bearing for a better bearing you would never say the bearing is converting waste heat power into electrical power.  The same thing applies to changing the magnet configuration.

You simply can not arrive at the conclusion that you are suggesting.

MileHigh

[MileHigh]

I am most likely wrong,, but I take what Tinman is saying when referencing "heat" is that it takes energy to make it, energy from the system,, so electrical energy is being converted into heat, so a penny saved.  I do not take it that he is saying that some "heat" is being converted back into electricity by the PM's, but they are replacing a process that consumes electrical energy and dissipates part of that as heat.

"so less electrical energy is being converted into heat, so a penny saved."

Then what Brad is saying is just an awkward and roundabout way of saying in Case A you have efficiency A and in Case B you have efficiency B.  The use of the word "converted" is inappropriate, awkward, and misleading.   Just keep it simple.