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Overunity Machines Forum



MH's ideal coil and voltage question

Started by tinman, May 08, 2016, 04:42:41 AM

Previous topic - Next topic

0 Members and 10 Guests are viewing this topic.

Can a voltage exist across an ideal inductor that has a steady DC current flowing through it

yes it can
5 (25%)
no it cannot
11 (55%)
I have no idea
4 (20%)

Total Members Voted: 20

Magneticitist

Quote from: Pirate88179 on May 12, 2016, 08:28:09 PM
Aluminum, another good conductor, is also diamagnetic.  I have seen videos of a magnet slowly sliding down an Al plate.  Is Bismuth diamagnetic or paramagnetic? I can't remember...it has been a while.

Bill

hell it's been a while myself, I'd have to look up 'paramagnetic' but i'd imagine it's the opposite effect.
I'm pretty sure Bismuth is diamagnetic though. It would certainly seem counter intuitive to say
that copper is not diamagnetic when it does seem to behave that way, like aluminum. I have
never heard that word used to describe the Lenz effect however which is why I can imagine
there is some scientific separation. I'm not one to nitpick over terminology as long as I can understand you of course, but if there IS some separation in the physical explanation of Lenz
law and diamagnetism then I suppose Brad would be correct in excluding the word Diamagnetic.
I suppose the difference lies in the changing magnetic field vs a non changing. Bismuth requires no lenz interaction to get the opposition.  (at least from the newtonian side of things to the quantum side of things lol)



edit- ok so copper and aluminum are diamagnetic like many other metals. However their
naturally occurring diamagnetism is quite negligible when compared to Bismuth.
So you could say, yes, the magnet acts the way it does in the pipe because copper is a diamagnetic. But to give that explanation also requires that we explain the diamagnetic interaction between the magnet and the copper is a direct result of the Lenz effect, the opposing fields.
so long as a changing magnetic field is brought into the explanation it seems totally proper.

It only becomes confusing when someone can think that copper is naturally diamagnetic like
Bismuth and will yield that field opposition without any changing field interacting with it.


tinman

Quote from: Magneticitist on May 12, 2016, 08:34:08 PM
hell it's been a while myself, I'd have to look up 'paramagnetic' but i'd imagine it's the opposite effect.
I'm pretty sure Bismuth is diamagnetic though. It would certainly seem counter intuitive to say
that copper is not diamagnetic when it does seem to behave that way, like aluminum. I have
never heard that word used to describe the Lenz effect however which is why I can imagine
there is some scientific separation. I'm not one to nitpick over terminology as long as I can understand you of course, but if there IS some separation in the physical explanation of Lenz
law and diamagnetism then I suppose Brad would be correct in excluding the word Diamagnetic.
I suppose the difference lies in the changing magnetic field vs a non changing. Bismuth requires no lenz interaction to get the opposition.  (at least from the newtonian side of things to the quantum side of things lol)



edit- ok so copper and aluminum are diamagnetic like many other metals. However their
naturally occurring diamagnetism is quite negligible when compared to Bismuth.
So you could say, yes, the magnet acts the way it does in the pipe because copper is a diamagnetic. But to give that explanation also requires that we explain the diamagnetic interaction between the magnet and the copper is a direct result of the Lenz effect, the opposing fields.
so long as a changing magnetic field is brought into the explanation it seems totally proper.

It only becomes confusing when someone can think that copper is naturally diamagnetic like
Bismuth and will yield that field opposition without any changing field interacting with it.

If the pipe is cooled down enough,so as it became superconductive,would the magnet still fall?

Think about that,and how it relates to the ideal coil,which is also made of many superconductive loops.


Brad

Magneticitist

Quote from: tinman on May 12, 2016, 11:55:42 PM
If the pipe is cooled down enough,so as it became superconductive,would the magnet still fall?

Think about that,and how it relates to the ideal coil,which is also made of many superconductive loops.


Brad

hmm good question, I don't see why it would. but even those scenarios involve an observable magnetic field. which means it's still radiating.

Pirate88179

Quote from: tinman on May 12, 2016, 11:55:42 PM
If the pipe is cooled down enough,so as it became superconductive,would the magnet still fall?

Think about that,and how it relates to the ideal coil,which is also made of many superconductive loops.


Brad

Brad:

No!  No...

Please do not introduce an ideal pipe into the mix, ha ha.  My head is about to explode from all of the other ideal items we have already.

Bill

PS  No, the magnet would not fall as Lenz would be increased proportionally to the increased conductivity of the copper pipe.
See the Joule thief Circuit Diagrams, etc. topic here:
http://www.overunity.com/index.php?topic=6942.0;topicseen

Magneticitist

Quote from: Pirate88179 on May 13, 2016, 12:52:10 AM
Brad:

No!  No...

Please do not introduce an ideal pipe into the mix, ha ha.  My head is about to explode from all of the other ideal items we have already.

Bill

PS  No, the magnet would not fall as Lenz would be increased proportionally to the increased conductivity of the copper pipe.

almost spit my mountain dew out at that one