Electrical igniter for gas engines A keystone to understanding by Magluvin

[forest]

A wire has a small inductance, not capacitance. Then, the frequency of damped oscillation is determined by: 1/2π√LC
The energy is lost because the wire is mostly resistive (i.e. Low Q-factor), therefore 50% of the energy is burned up in heat and lost to the environment.

Seems you're still having trouble seeing the forest for the trees.

.99

Thanks.Obviously I thought about inductance of wire ! Stupid mistake sorry.

[Cap-Z-ro]

I no EE, but from what I have been picking up, a wire's capicity or resistive potential is governed by load and or wire gauge.

So, therefore, a wire can be either capicitive or resistive...is that not correct ?

Regards...

[poynt99]

on my latest post, i asked , what would be the result if ONLY the transfering wire should be supraconductive , but not the cap.

the idea was to isolate the transfer system.

So what happen if i have a main normal source cap which is connected by a supraconductive wiring to the normal receiver cap ?.

I think that, in this  ( virtual )  circuit , the transfer will oscillate some time and the cap resistance will slowly damp the oscillations to the final result   = 50% lost of the stored energy.

So i think that whatever is the transfer mean ( resistive or supraconductive ), and this OF COURSE WITHOUT THE COUPLE  INDUCTOR /DIODE, the direct transfer maximum efficiency from a cap to a cap can not avoid 5o% energy lost.

And if this transfer  is so good because  it loses  ONLY 50 % energy lost , that  means it is in fact 100 % efficient ?? i mean it is no way to get a better result in a direct transfer.

good luck at all

laurent

If you had two ideal capacitors (ESR=0 Ohms) of the same value connected together with an ideal wire (Z=0 Ohms) and no diode, then the transfer of energy from C1 to C2 would be instantaneous (with no oscillation), and there would be no energy loss.

So if C1 started with 1.00V and C2 with 0.00V, the end result would be with both caps at 0.707V.

.99

[poynt99]

I no EE, but from what I have been picking up, a wire's capicity or resistive potential is governed by load and or wire gauge.

So, therefore, a wire can be either capicitive or resistive...is that not correct ?

Regards...

Capz,

There is no such thing as "resistive potential".

Generally speaking, a wire has resistance and inductance, but no capacitance.

When we begin working with higher and higher frequencies (which includes transient type currents), then it becomes necessary to start looking at wires as transmission lines. In this case the wire can "see" some capacitance, but it does not "have" capacitance. TL's are another topic for discussion however.

.99

[Cap-Z-ro]

100 feet of wire stretched horizontally in the air 100 up will accumulate a charge...is that not by definition a capacitive property ?

The varying values of resisters is defined as a resistive property, is it not ?

You appear to be engaging in games of semantics, are you not ?

Regards...