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New Breakthrough in Over Unity Theory

Started by Merg, June 10, 2010, 08:52:09 PM

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Cloxxki

X
O-----o
      X
^    ^
|     |
|     |

X              magnets, moving upward.
--            magnets' respective initial vectors
O-----o     launch arm and pivot, massless and lossless.

The arm falls in place, beind the left, and in front of the right magnet. Right magnet exerts force on the lever, immediately transferred to the left magnet. Due to the pivot of the arm being further offset less the lateral distance between the magnet paths, the force transfer is fast enough, and end speed of the right magnet (near) zero. Elasticity of the arm might assist in accomplishing complete KE transfer.

According to Milkovic, the vectors can be added to result in double velocity for left magnet.
According to E=1/2 MV², it cannot.

Am I understanding this right?

Rosphere

Quote from: exnihiloest on June 16, 2010, 03:35:45 AM
Meaningless. What means "fast enough"? How much? What means "passing extra path"? Where is the impulse applied from? Where are the equations? Those in the pdf are wrong or misinterpreted. It has to be honestly rewritten.
...

I do remember my engineering classes.  Units were very important.  Remember Hubble?

Not just English to Metric units; we could always check our answers for gross errors by checking the MLT, (Mass, Length & Time,) characteristics of our answer against what was expected: If our answer was in meters per second, (length over time = L/T,) and we were expecting an L/T^2, (acceleration,) answer, then we knew we made a mistake somewhere in our math because we got velocity, L/T.

I got stuck/lost on page three of the PDF and completely lost interest after that.  They proposed transferring energy using a force, while on the previous page they state momentum as the transfer unit.

mass = M
length = L
time = T
velocity = L/T
acceleration = L/T^2
momentum = mass*velocity = M*L/T
force = mass*acceleration = M*L/T^2
work = energy = force over a distance = M*L/T^2*L = M*L^2/T^2
power = work done over time = M*L^2/T^2/T = M*L^2/T^3

So, instead of using momentum, M*L/T, he uses a force, M*L/T^2, or M*L/T/T.  This is why he needs to state that it is an impact force, he needs to eliminate the "over time" part of the force, (/T), to get back to the momentum transfer.

Then there were all of these extra stipulations or definitions of how the force was always constant everywhere and I started to doze-off.  I wasted about an hour typing a response here and then I deleted it without posting.  I felt like I was getting sucked into another lead-out theory discussion around all the overunity spewing out of a simple pendulum because someone was twisting the basic rules of the game.  I was not up to tearing down the window dressing hung up around the force about how this force shall act and how this force shall be applied, again.

The whole set-up on the top of page three just blew me away.

Quote from: exnihiloest on June 16, 2010, 03:35:45 AM
...
Milkovic's pendulum is a usefull device for some applications but under unity and perfectly explainable with current known physics laws. Nothing more. Or prove it by making it selfrunning instead of providing misleading math; this work would be much more profitable. If we had "12 times more output than input" as stipulated, this should be very very easy...

Yep.