Lenz free generator

[allcanadian]

@tinman

Take two magnets of same size and grade-lets say a couple of N52 neo rod magnets of size 1/2 inch diameter x 1 inch long. Join the two together-north to south. They have now become one magnet. You say the center of this magnet has the weakest part of the field-or is neutral ?. Well, try and pull them apart--not so weak now,is it.

I wanted to address this issue separately because there are many errors present. We should note that there is a difference between the field strength and the size of the field. For example when you joined your two N52 magnets they did not become one and the field density did not change. They are still N52 magnets having a known material field density however the volume of material has change increasing the size of the field present. You will note between the two joined magnets is a neutral zone and it will always be present at the pole interface unless the magnetic material is formed as one piece thus the two magnets are not one nor will they ever be one.

Concerning this statement--- "You say the center of this magnet has the weakest part of the field-or is neutral ?. Well, try and pull them apart--not so weak now".
Grab the ends of your car and try to pull it apart -- which is the weakest part of your car and which is the strongest part?. Of course this is an absurd statement however this is exactly what your statement is suggesting. That somehow we could magically determine the greatest strength in the whole of the system simply by measuring a simple force between two individual parts in the system. The greatest field strength is not determined by measuring a simple force it is determined by measuring all the forces or fields present and determining which is the greatest and where it is the greatest.

Next is a simple error in logic most everyone seems to be making concerning the neutral space between magnetic poles. Now let's say we have called one end of the magnetic field a North polarity (N) and the other end of the magnetic field a South polarity (S). That is one end of the external magnetic field is N and the other end of the external magnetic field is S. Now if one end is N and the other is S then as we move down the magnet the field must obviously transition from N to S. So what happens at the midpoint where N becomes S?, a condition deemed N has become an equal yet opposite condition known as S. You see what many are suggesting is that one condition (N) has miraculously become an opposite condition (S) without a transition within the space between the two conditions.

Obviously one condition cannot just magically become another opposite condition without a transition from one to the other because that would be completely absurd yet that is what you are implying isn't it?. Something (N) has become something else (S) which is different however apparently there is no point at which this transition from N to S can take place anywhere... Do you think this makes sense? because it makes absolutely no sense to me and defies pretty much all the known laws of physics.

So my question is very simple... if the external magnetic field does in fact change from North polarity to South polarity then where do you think it changes?, at what specific point does the change from N to S occur?.

AC

[EMJunkie]

@tinman
I wanted to address this issue separately because there are many errors present. We should note that there is a difference between the field strength and the size of the field. For example when you joined your two N52 magnets they did not become one and the field density did not change. They are still N52 magnets having a known material field density however the volume of material has change increasing the size of the field present. You will note between the two joined magnets is a neutral zone and it will always be present at the pole interface unless the magnetic material is formed as one piece thus the two magnets are not one nor will they ever be one.

Concerning this statement--- "You say the center of this magnet has the weakest part of the field-or is neutral ?. Well, try and pull them apart--not so weak now".
Grab the ends of your car and try to pull it apart -- which is the weakest part of your car and which is the strongest part?. Of course this is an absurd statement however this is exactly what your statement is suggesting. That somehow we could magically determine the greatest strength in the whole of the system simply by measuring a simple force between two individual parts in the system. The greatest field strength is not determined by measuring a simple force it is determined by measuring all the forces or fields present and determining which is the greatest and where it is the greatest.

Next is a simple error in logic most everyone seems to be making concerning the neutral space between magnetic poles. Now let's say we have called one end of the magnetic field a North polarity (N) and the other end of the magnetic field a South polarity (S). That is one end of the external magnetic field is N and the other end of the external magnetic field is S. Now if one end is N and the other is S then as we move down the magnet the field must obviously transition from N to S. So what happens at the midpoint where N becomes S?, a condition deemed N has become an equal yet opposite condition known as S. You see what many are suggesting is that one condition (N) has miraculously become an opposite condition (S) without a transition within the space between the two conditions.

Obviously one condition cannot just magically become another opposite condition without a transition from one to the other because that would be completely absurd yet that is what you are implying isn't it?. Something (N) has become something else (S) which is different however apparently there is no point at which this transition from N to S can take place anywhere... Do you think this makes sense? because it makes absolutely no sense to me and defies pretty much all the known laws of physics.

So my question is very simple... if the external magnetic field does in fact change from North polarity to South polarity then where do you think it changes?, at what specific point does the change from N to S occur?.

AC

If I may interject with an opinion, or a different perspective?

The Mono Pole has never been found, well it actually has, but it's not been standardised. Science has not found Monopoles in Nature and its not currently a part of accepted Science: elusive 'magnetic monopoles' found

In 1931, Paul Dirac, one of the rock stars of the physics world, made the somewhat startling prediction that "magnetic monopoles," or particles possessing only a single pole—either north or south—should exist. His conclusion stemmed from examining a famous set of equations that explains the relationship between electricity and magnetism. Maxwell's equations apply to long-known electric monopole particles, such as negatively charged electrons and positively charged protons; but despite Dirac's prediction, no one has found magnetic monopole particles.

Read more at: http://phys.org/news/2009-10-large-scale-cousin-elusive-magnetic-monopoles.html#jCp

A observational view point is most definitely distorted by the position of observation, today we know this and it is known that just observing some phenomena can distort the result.

The team created their monopoles in a compound made of oxygen, titanium and dysprosium that, when cooled to nearly absolute zero, forms what scientists call "spin ice." The material freezes into four-sided crystals (a pyramid with a triangular base) and the magnetic orientation, or "spin," of the ions at each of the four tips align so that their spins are balanced—two spins point inward and two outward. But using neutron beams at the NCNR, the team found they could knock one of the spins askew so that instead three point in, one out ... "creating a monopole, or at least its mathematical equivalent,"

Read more at: http://phys.org/news/2009-10-large-scale-cousin-elusive-magnetic-monopoles.html#jCp

So, from an observational view point, a deformation of Spin, can appear to create a Monopole. To me, this implies standard Magnetic Formations are a precursor, or a better term a requirement for the formation of a Monopole.

Just as every Planet we have observed is Spherical, nature has a particular, or a specific set of base level formations on any and all objects.

A Structure of Spin does have the same base level formation defined by Nature, but this is different depending on observation view point.  The below image can be very different if one were to observe from Inside, in the middle, of the formation...

Of course, the "relationship between electricity and magnetism" does require a deformation of Magnetic Fields, a High Stress Area is required, where the Magnetic Poles Oppose each other and the structure does have a particular pole of the same kind on each end of the structure.


   Chris Sykes
       hyiq.org

[tinman]

I would say that the strongest magnetic field would be at the poles.
Once you try to part two magnets you've essentially got two
individual magnets and hence the attraction will be greatest.
The electric field,however,is quite different.
           John.

But you dont have two individual magnets until they are parted. While you are trying to part them,they are still one magnet.

A lot of people confuse field concentration (the poles) with total field value.
The greatest total field value is at the center of the magnet-not at the poles.


Brad

[tinman]

@tinman


Concerning this statement--- "You say the center of this magnet has the weakest part of the field-or is neutral ?. Well, try and pull them apart--not so weak now".
Grab the ends of your car and try to pull it apart -- which is the weakest part of your car and which is the strongest part?. Of course this is an absurd statement however this is exactly what your statement is suggesting. That somehow we could magically determine the greatest strength in the whole of the system simply by measuring a simple force between two individual parts in the system. The greatest field strength is not determined by measuring a simple force it is determined by measuring all the forces or fields present and determining which is the greatest and where it is the greatest.



So my question is very simple... if the external magnetic field does in fact change from North polarity to South polarity then where do you think it changes?, at what specific point does the change from N to S occur?.

AC

I wanted to address this issue separately because there are many errors present. We should note that there is a difference between the field strength and the size of the field. For example when you joined your two N52 magnets they did not become one and the field density did not change. They are still N52 magnets having a known material field density however the volume of material has change increasing the size of the field present. You will note between the two joined magnets is a neutral zone and it will always be present at the pole interface unless the magnetic material is formed as one piece thus the two magnets are not one nor will they ever be one.

Of course they became one-as far as the magnetic field is concerned. You only have to map that field with your hall sensor,and you will see that the field will be exactly the same as that of one complete magnet the same size.

Next is a simple error in logic most everyone seems to be making concerning the neutral space between magnetic poles. Now let's say we have called one end of the magnetic field a North polarity (N) and the other end of the magnetic field a South polarity (S). That is one end of the external magnetic field is N and the other end of the external magnetic field is S. Now if one end is N and the other is S then as we move down the magnet the field must obviously transition from N to S. So what happens at the midpoint where N becomes S?, a condition deemed N has become an equal yet opposite condition known as S. You see what many are suggesting is that one condition (N) has miraculously become an opposite condition (S) without a transition within the space between the two conditions.

Obviously one condition cannot just magically become another opposite condition without a transition from one to the other because that would be completely absurd yet that is what you are implying isn't it?. Something (N) has become something else (S) which is different however apparently there is no point at which this transition from N to S can take place anywhere... Do you think this makes sense? because it makes absolutely no sense to me and defies pretty much all the known laws of physics.

There is no north or south,these are terms used only to describe field flow direction.
If you look at any drawing of a magnetic field of a PM(or electromagnet),you will see that we depict a flow out from one end,and back into the other,and the only point along that magnet that has a unidirectional flow of this field,is at the mid point.

Your hall probe is measuring field density at one point of the field,and yes,this is at the !poles! of the magnet. But the greatest total field-and there for ,greatest total field strength,is at the center of the magnet.

As we use PMs in devices,where that PM field influences other parts of the device(E.G-induces an EMF in a coil,where that magnetic field is changing in time relative to the coil),then your statement about external influences upon the field is mute--as we never use a PM in a device where it dose not,or is not influenced by another part of the device. So what is the point in measuring the magnetic field the way you have?,when it needs to be measured in the conditions it will be in when being part of the operation of the device.

Lets look at the picture below-->what color line has the highest total magnetic flux flowing through it in one direction ?
What part of the field would cause the greatest induction to occur in a secondary coil?.

I think you have fallen for the old !nothing sticks to the magnet at the center,and so there must be no field! trick. You have also mistakenly measured the greatest flux density area with your hall probe-not greatest total field strength.


Brad

[i_ron]

But you dont have two individual magnets until they are parted. While you are trying to part them,they are still one magnet.

A lot of people confuse field concentration (the poles) with total field value.
The greatest total field value is at the center of the magnet-not at the poles.


Brad

Sort of confirmation is a test I did with the zero force coil.


Ron