Is this the first selfrunning overunity motor w/o batteries ? Mike?s motor

[devrimogun]

I recently went back and reviewed all of Mikes posts in the gn0sis.com forum.  It was very interesting.  I find his posts to be almost more credible than his video.  If the guy was a fake, he did an incredible job of being believable.

If you go back and look through all of his posts, you get the feeling that the guy just stumbled on to something and was doing his best to share what he had done.  Compare his posts to those of John Bedini, or the posts in the Steven Marks thread.  There is no comparison.  Mike seemed to do everything he could to answer questions, help document, etc.  The attitude of those who claim to be "masters" is completely different.  They try to make puzzles and riddles out of every little thing, then they tell you they are doing it for your benefit.  I really don't get it. (I think I do get it, but I don't think it needs to be spelled out here.)

DB

Guys you must have already heard many disappearance stories about valuable people who have invented stuff like water cars, no input generators.

For some people out there it is quite easy to track down somebody to their address from the IP numbers. Afterall, it does not make sense that Mike disappeared all of a sudden and a minute ago he was doing his best to help out by answering our questions.

I wish someone among you could get his phone number from his IP tracks. I really am worried about the guy.

[Peterae]

Hi Darren

you are very clever.

Also i found this which i feel backs up what i have found with the diagram, this was posted when Mike was around, and its from John Bedini notes.

Looks similar.
Are those the transistors Mike used??? I think his were MPS as well.
Peter

[z_p_e]

Peter...lol

The transistors Mike used were definately NOT the MPS8099/8599 as per John's schemtics. Mike used some medium power Q's, and that's why I've gone with the TIP33/34 (B).

That diagram is step 1 of what Mike did I think. Add a battery and S1 between Cap+ and bat+.

Darren

[gyulasun]

I've been thinking about what Dave and DB mentioned regarding the passing magnets affecting the waveforms we're seeing both in the real motors and in my model.

I believe what is happening is a modulation of the coil core's permeability. The coil-mass is essentially an air-core coil, but as a pm approaches, the permeability of the area near the windings increases. This would be challenging to model I think, although probably not impossible if you're clever enough (which I'm probably not ).

One other ting I've learned, and perhaps someone could confirm, is air-core coils generally do not have better than a 0.7 coupling coefficient. I have been using 0.95 thus far. When I adjusted it down to 0.7, and increased the coil's parallel capacitance, things started looking much closer to reality. One affect was the spreading out of the double-pulse. In mine thus far, they have been too close together, but now are almost the same spacing as shown in Mike's scope shots (~ 1.5 - 2.0 ms).

Darren

Hi Darren,

I would like to reflect to your text in bold above. My experiments with magnets in coils indicated that the permeability of a permanent magnet is very very close to 1!  It means by inserting any permanent magnet into an air cored coil the self-inductivity of the coil remains practically the same.

Let me quote this text from link: http://www.magnetweb.com/Sect1C.htm

"Notice that the slope of the B vs. H curve, dB/dH=?o, at least for -Hci<H<+Hci. Now ?o is the permeability of free space, and dB/dH has this same value in air gap regions where there is no magnetic material (M=0), so even though this ideal permanent magnet does have magnetization M, it appears to the surrounding media like an air gap! This will be important, for example, in determining the inductance of a coil in a magnetic circuit which also contains a magnet."

So if a permanent magnet approaches an air cored coil, the permeability will not change near the coil area just by the magnet's physical presence as if it were kinda iron core. This sounds strange indeed but is true even for the 'good old' ferrite/ceramic magnets too.

Regards
Gyula

[z_p_e]

Hi Gyula,

Thank you for the insight.

It seems this is called "recoil permeability", and is the slope of the magnet BH curve.

So I guess as odd as it seems, it is not necessary to include the magnet's influence on the coil's permeabilty, since it is pretty well the same as free space.

So, I wonder if anyone can think of ways pm-coil induction differs from coil-coil induction in this instance with the bcwm ?

Darren