Re-Inventing The Wheel-Part1-Clemente_Figuera-THE INFINITE ENERGY MACHINE

[Doug1]

Antijon

"Second image represents what we've discussed as the Figuera generator. Both coils driven by pulsed 5V DC, opposing. Output is 5V AC. Now notice the similarities in each image. Whether it's 2.5V AC or 5V DC the total change is equal to 5V. Here again, 1A in the output is equal to 1A in each input coil, but because they come from the same 5V source, it's 5V at 1A, or 5W in and out."

If 2,5 qnd 2,5 are 5 how is 5 and 5 =5? When the source is split into two completely separate magnets with the same 5 volts feeding both in opposition the difference would be the total when it is in motion shifting the fields over the Y. Thats without even accounting for the number of lines being compressed at the point where the two fields collide shortening the distance of movement needed to have induction result in the Y. The Y is a reference to a space with out movement of it's own having two fields move over the space one at a time. The force between the two fields pushing against each other is the analog form of using one high intensity field being rotated with a physical core the force between the two increases the lines of the fields which determines the amount of induction as each of the two fields are shifted to cover the Y as the other retreats without losing the overall force between the two fields. If ether of the two fields collapse to much the compression of the two is lost and the output will fall off. Transformers only use a single field to which it is converted up or down or used to isolate the mains from the load in case of a short on the load side. A generator increases it's field strength by using the output to feed back into the field to generate more output until it is generating more output then the combined load of the field and the working external circuit.

[hanon]

 Just some thoughts about the movement of the two magnetic fields. Both fields move and collide in the the exact point where they find their equilibrium point: this point  is where their magnetic forces are equal. Let´s say that the magnetic force is directly proportional to the current intensity (Intensity) and is inversely proportional to the square of the distance (d) from the electromagnets (many Physical Laws show a behavior of dissipation proportional to (1/d^2) ). Then simplifying, the magnetic Force could be represented by:    F = K · Intensity / (d^2)   , where K is a constant

The point where both fields (1 and 2) move and find the equilibrium point is where there is balance of their forces :  F1 = F2 . Also we know that the distance from one electromagnet (d1) plus the distance from the other electromagnet (d2) is the total distance between both electromagnets (L).  If we have in one electromagnet a Intensity1= 7 amperes and in the other a Intensity2 = 1 ampere then:

K · Intensity1 / d1^2  =  K · Intensity2 / d2^2        ->    d1 = sqrt(Intensity1/Intensity2)·d2

d1 + d2  = L                                                         ->    d2 =  L / (1 + sqrt (Intensity1/Intenst2))

Now my question: if the induced core is a low reluctance metal , Could it have a force decreasing  proportionally to 1/d^2 ?, or, May it have a magnetic force almost independent to the distance, as consequence of the low reluctance medium? In this second case the movement of the field lines will be very small because the equilibrium point will not be dependent of the distance to each electromagnet. May we need a kind of medium with a little higher reluctance to increase the lines movement?

[antijon]

Very complicated electronics is not needed. An ordinary step down transformer with diode bridge at out put of transformer and split primary connected to diagonal opposite ends of two primaries with the ends being connected to diode bridge will do the trick of both primaries having different current flowing in them always.

And this is it in a nutshell. In every simulation or idea I've tried to recreate the waveforms, it always ends up as two waves 180 degrees in time. It's AC voltage. Like in the first image, I have 4 different sources pulsing at different times, but the effect is that the current travels up and down the resistor. The resistor is just a current divider used to produce two clean sine waves.

Doug, I actually made a typo there. The coils are at a ratio of 1:1:2. It's a step-up where the output coil has twice as much windings as each primary.

If 2,5 qnd 2,5 are 5 how is 5 and 5 =5?

Look at the peak to peak voltage. Peak to peak voltage of 2.5V AC is 5 volts. DC pulse of 5V is 5V peak to peak. It's the same thing. Look, the coils don't care whether it's AC or DC, it just sees a current moving in one direction or the other.

When the source is split into two completely separate magnets with the same 5 volts feeding both in opposition the difference would be the total when it is in motion shifting the fields over the Y. Thats without even accounting for the number of lines being compressed at the point where the two fields collide shortening the distance of movement needed to have induction result in the Y.

It doesn't work like that in reality. Magnetic lines don't just leap out of iron and produce "flux cutting" on coils. The reason why is because iron has such a higher permeability than air, it requires a lot of energy to to push the lines out. And this also creates a lot of heat in the iron... say induction heating? If you want to go with that model, good luck.

I'm pretty firm in the opinion now that he simply used the driver to create AC. The overunity comes from the arrangement of multiple coils.

[Doug1]

We will just have agree to disagree.

[marathonman]

Excuse me Doug i have Indian Tech support on the other line, i'll get back with you.
Damn i sure like those Sham Wow's but they were out of rubber spoons.
and here i thought it was the Hysteresis cycle that caused the heating and that pure iron has almost no hysteresis.
dummy me, how could i have ever thought of that.

Hanon pic below