Joule Thief 101

[tinman]

Wine Glass Questions - Answered

How does a wine glass resonate, what is the mechanism?

The wine glass resonates by cycling energy back and forth between two forms, kinetic energy and potential energy.  The instant when the glass is not deformed, the glass is moving at a maximum velocity and all of the energy is stored as kinetic energy in the form of a moving mass.  The instant when the glass is at its maximum deformation, the glass has stopped moving and all of the energy is stored as potential energy in the form of a compressed spring.  In between these two states, the energy is stored as combination of kinetic energy and potential energy.

How is the resonant frequency of a wine glass determined?

The resonant frequency of a wine glass is determined by a combination of the effective moving mass of the glass and the effective stiffness of the glass interacting with each other.  The higher the effective moving mass of the glass, the lower the resonant frequency.  The higher the effective stiffness the glass, the higher the resonant frequency.

This MH was also a big fail.
As i pointed out earlier,--> all of the energy is stored as kinetic energy
Nope-wrong again.

It is funny how you harped away at me,smokey,and others,when we provided our description's,saying we are all wrong,and that you have it all correct-->and then you go and post a description of the worlds first continuous self resonating wine glass lol.


Brad.

[tinman]

Yes, early in the thread you were bursting with attitude when we started to talk about resonance and getting all riled up.  And lo and behold, now that you see the answer you realize that you were not in fact able to answer the question correctly.  Now that you see the answer you can be a better "resonance researcher."

Not with your answer MH--its wrong in many ways.

You forgot energy input to start with.
You state that !!all!! the energy is stored as kinetic energy
That is also incorrect--again.

And now you take the piss out of SeaMonkey,and tell him now that you have supplied your answers,he will better understand resonance lol.

You really crack me up some times MH--you really do lol.


Brad

[tinman]

Dear Brad.

Attached is a screenshot of a " pinched field " waveform past an unloaded coil.

This was done a couple of years ago under the " eye " of T-1000, we were looking at the Leedskalnin generator.

I managed to get a pair of 6 mm ( 1/4" ) square magnets with the N poles facing into a rotor that was spun by hand. Note the tightness despite the very low rotation speed.

Cheers Grum.

Captions added.

[tinman]

Tinman,
Why would the decline of the + peak and the propagation of the negative peak take twice as long when only at TDC?
The only way I can see your sine wave is if the core of the coil is twice as wide as the magnet. This would give time for decline of the positive and the rise of the negative.
Not trying to start an argument  just trying to understand.
artv

OK,trying to clear this up a bit more.

I agree the approaching magnet will give rise, but only to the peak of the positive, at TDC that positive peak then reverses instantly to negative peak ,and as the magnet leaves the negative peak rises back to the zero line.??

If we use a single magnet (as in my diagram),and that magnet has a tight field,then the transition from peak positive to peak negative will look instantaneous. This will also depend on the speed at which the magnets passes the core of the coil as well.
So yes,in some circumstances ,the transition will look instantaneous,but the voltage must reach a value of 0 when changing in polarity. This value is reached when the magnetic flux through the core is no longer changing in time,and that is the point where the magnet is directly inline/or at it's closest point to the core. This can also change when very high rotational speeds are used on the rotor.


Brad.

[tinman]

It would really be helpful if you were open to the idea that there is an opposite condition to the one you are describing.  Specifically, you make reference to TDC being zero volts, I appreciate this as do most, but as you well know this is text book, everyone can read the same over and over for themselves.  The opposite condition, namely, where TDC is the point of maximum opposition to change in flux, the point of maximum induced potential, is not discussed in the literature!  An open minded researcher like yourself would be wise to leave room for the possibility of such, and not slam the door shut each time you refer to coils and magnets and their geometric relations and interactions. 


Systems configured as we presently practice, are in my opinion half of the equation.  Folk don't seem to realize that, nor really care, as apparently it's more important to defend ones position.

My two cent!




Regards

where TDC is the point of maximum opposition to change in flux,

What is in opposition to the change in flux when the coil is open,and no current is flowing?-other than eddy currents in the core of course.

the point of maximum induced potential

The point of maximum induced potential is when the magnet is just before TDC.

Erfinder--stop being so bloody cryptic lol
Lets start a thread,and get the ball rolling 

Brad